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I don't understand their grammar at all, I speak traditional Parisian french. For example when I would say"veut-il venir?", a french canadian would say"y veux-tu venir?". That doesn't make any sense to me. Any explanation please.

2006-10-08 18:03:39 · 4 answers · asked by alex e 3 in Society & Culture Languages

Yes the pronociation is annoying, I can't understand the street talk, only when I'm watching T.V., such as newsbroadcasters.

2006-10-08 18:33:34 · update #1

Yes the pronociation is annoying, I can't understand the street talk, only when I'm watching T.V., such as newsbroadcasters can I understand. The parisian prononciation sounds so much better.

2006-10-08 18:34:20 · update #2

4 answers

Don't you think it is pronunciation rather than grammar the problem? I learned french in Montreal with teacher from France, they were complaining all the time about the pronunciation in Quebec.

In your example "tu" can be said instead of "...t-il"

I think this variations are interesting, and culturally normal.

2006-10-08 18:20:06 · answer #1 · answered by mr_martinez 3 · 1 0

I don't know if it's their grammar with which you have a quarrel, but rather, their dialect. That explanation is simple enough--geographic isolation (i.e., the same reason someone in Provence would pronounce the phrase <> as <>

The phrase you select doesn't represent the high French, which one communicates. As you noted, the French on the newscasts and on French-Canadian television is closer to Parisian French.

My first out-of-college job was with Unitel answering service calls from Quebec. I was wondering why these people were still driving "chariots" and lighting "lampadaires."

I could understand people from Montreal with no problem. People from Quebec presented a struggle--and if they were on farms--we ended up speaking more English than French.

2006-10-09 02:29:33 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 1

is has nothing to do with the French Canadian Grammar....if so, it would be written ''y veux-tu venir'' in the dictionnaries. it's just a way of speaking, we would never write that in a text or say that in an oral. there are some exceptions of course.

2006-10-09 14:42:49 · answer #3 · answered by domy 2 · 1 0

Funny. We never have any problem understanding you guys. :)
In "Y veut-tu venir" 'y' is just short for 'il'. We add the second 'tu' to questions all the time. It has no grammatical value whatsoever, except to insist it's a question. You can just ignore it. I don't know why we do it either.
So 'Y veut-tu venir?', is really just "Il veut venir?"

2006-10-09 02:44:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 5 0

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