Do you want to know why most Christians believe that Sodom was destroyed because of homexuality?

Question

This question is in response to a question posted 30 to 40 minutes ago. The asker was not willing to believe that God destroyed Sodom due to men being engaged in homosexualty.

It is correct in understanding that the intention of the men of Sodom was to RAPE the angels who appeared as men. The asker conveniently forgot to tell everyone, though, that Lot offered the men the opportunity to RAPE his vigin daughters.

Now let's see. If I'm a heterosexual man and all I'm interested in is the violence of rape and I'm given a choice to rape a woman or a man ------- HHMMMM. Which one would I rape? The one that fits my sexuality or the one that repulses me sexually.

So yes rape is about violence but it is violence directed through ones sexuality. How would a heterosexual who is repulsed by the idea of homosexual sex be able to rape a man given a choice? Come on. You are casting a blind eye to the obvious. A heterosexual would not have a desire to express violence through homosexual sex given a choice of the two.

You might say well how about heterosexuals in prison who engage in homosexual rape. They are not given the opportunity to engage in heterosexual sex. When these men leave prison they return to sexual expression through heterosexual sex.

Answer 1

Homosexuality was only one of the sins, though. It's clear that all the city was doing wrong, and this would've meant many sins. It says that all the men, young and old, came to his door to rape the visitors. Talk about evil.

Since I imagine ppl will say it was wrong for Lot to offer his daughters. You have to understand that in that culture it was of the utmost importance to protect and care for any guests you had. So Lot had a very difficult choice to make, allow his guest and himself to be disgraced by allowing them to rape him, or force his daughters into the situation. He decided it was better for the latter to occur, though certainly not a good outcome, it was the best available to him considering the culture and circumstance.

(Although, it never says they actually did rape them, so they may not have. Right after he offers his daughters, they insult him and try to break him, and the angels strike them blind.)

However, it seems clear that homosexuality was only one of the sins. God couldn't even find 10 righteous people.

Answer 2

How does that explain a Christian belief? I think the psychology of a rapist is going to be best understood by another rapist....similar to understanding a drug addict. Rape such a wierd, "other side of the fence" idea to the common squeamish man nowadays, much like shooting speed-balls. The logic is going to be hard to follow, much less explain. Even moreso given the time-period. The ability to put yourself in the mindset of people from antiquity AND the other side of the world is close to impossible, I don't care what kind of degree you have.
Aside from that, the reasoning that would lead someone to rape is most likely as varied as the fetishes our world gets off to today. You shouldn't try and pigeon-hole it into being just about violence. Sado-masochists arent just having violent sex--well, some are--many people I've talked to just love to have a full spectrum of sensations in the bedroom, along with the pleasant ones, simply in order to understand thier partners more fully....its a twisted take on compassion isn't it? Though not without a logic of it's own.
I think rape is most likely to be an expression of nearly any emotion....lust....revenge.....envy....obviously violent feelings of rage directed sexually.......maybe even fear.....pride......dominanation.....or maybe, the person is just so horny there is no other option, such as prison, where whackin it only goes so far. But, all-in-all it results in a violent sexaul act. I wonder which comes first in the assailants head, the violence or the sex? It likely varies from person to person like everything else does. Thanks for the chance to pigeon-hole religious folks.

Answer 3

This is a viewpoint that is true today. However, in the past sexuality was a very different matter. It was quite frequent, even accepted, that a normal married man would go out and have sex with other men. Sex wasn't always about sexuality. It was often about asserting power.

Take Athens. What was disgusting then was having sex with someone in your own caste. As native men were the only citizens, this allowed for sex with women and men of lower castes.

To consider situations of the past, even as recent as the 1800s, in terms of present sexuality is anachronistic. It is arguable that homosexuality didn't even exist before that time. People performed homosexual actions, but the mark or identity of homosexuality was not established.

Answer 4

Of direction that wasn't the reason. In each and every of the verses that quite say why Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed, homosexuality is on no account presented up. human beings will placed across up the wherein the adult men had to rape the concentrated visitor which replace into as quickly as an angel, inspite of the incontrovertible fact that it on no account says that Sodom and Gomorrah replace into as quickly as destroyed for that reason, and that's telling that human beings see this as a gay element particularly of a rape element. As for "unusual flesh" that replace into as quickly as in the NT, a procedures eradicated from OT situations, and how precisely does this propose homosexuality as quickly as greater?

Answer 5

Leviticus 18:22 and 10:13 says that homosexual acts between two men are deeply abhorrent to God, repugnant to Him--and worthy of death. Under the law of Moses sex between two unmarried persons (fornication), or sex outside of marriage (adultery) were also (in most cases), capital offenses as well.Sodom is a city which illustrates what Paul describes in Romans Chapter One: a culture with blatant sexual immorality, promiscuity, violence and open debauchery.The destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah serves as an eternal warning to everyone everywhere. God "made them an example to those who were to choose an ungodly way of living." in verse 8. Behold now, I have two daughters which have not known man; let me, I pray you, bring them out unto you, and do ye to them as is good in your eyes: only unto these men do nothing; for therefore came they under the shadow of my roof.(Being unable to satisfy the men of Sodom by persuasion, and rather than surrender these two precious "angels" to them, Lot resorted to a method which very seldom fails with "unreasonable" men. When an appeal to their manhood is of no avail many women seek death rather than suffer the embrace of their attacker, and we admire women with such courage, but that is not according to Biblical standard. This is the method the Bible advises us to pursue. )

Answer 6

That was to complicated. They were preverted sexually because they wanted to have sex with an angel.

Answer 7

That was the biggest part of why God destroyed sodom and gamorah. And He is going to do it again in our life time for the same exact reason.

Answer 8

Clap Clap!

Answer 9

Interesting ... my only question would be why did Lot offer his virgin daughters to be raped?

Answer 10

I always thought it was. I am not sure how to answer this question otherwise.