Why Do Most Christians Believe Sodom and Gomorrah Were Destroyed Because of Homosexuality?

Question

One of the greatest sins of these cities was inhospitality. The men of the town intended to rape (I repeat RAPE) the angels that visited Lot. How rape equates with two consenting adults is beyond me. Explain your insane logic.

Um to the people who said that the cities were named after the sins that were commited there, you're incredibly thick! Sodom was named way before the word sodomy was defined. Duh!

Wow. Some of ya'll are comparing rape (I don't care what kind, what the **** does that matter?) to an orinetation. These men were wickedly perverse. They were planning to sexually dominate and possibly kill Lot's angelic guests. Back then, guests were treated with utmost respect and protection. Newcomers to these cities were treated with contempt and the most evil of actions. Homosexuality is kind of irrelevent.

*orientation

Answer 1

I have a theory about this story.

I think when these stories were first circulated through nomadic legend. An explanation was needed for the two ancient cities that appeared to be burnt, out on a plain, and smack dab in the middle of the only lowland pass from North to South in the reagion. Like most legends of the time period, it always involves the god of the people telling the story.

One of the most facinating aspects of this story is the fact that shortly after Lot and his family escaped the destruction of the Twin Cities of Evil, the only righteous man in the region has incestuous sex with not one, but both of his daughters and has babies with them.

I'm convinced that in later years people blamed homosexuality to distract from the incestuous part of the story.

The honest and simple truth about this story is that the only time sex is even suggested is when Lot offers his virgin daughters to the out of control crowd. Homosexuality is simply not mentioned at all. There is no place in the Bible where Sodom is mentioned that suggests homosexuality had anything to do with the "wickedness" that warrented complete destruction. The only place in the entire Bible that says, "Sodom was destroyed because..." is the scripture in Ezekiel... and homosexuality is not mentioned. When Jesus spoke of Sodom, he didn't mention homosexuality.

So, logically thinking, if nobody in the Old Testament ever said homosexuality was the cause, and nobody in the New Testament ever said homosexuality is the cause, then we must conclude that the cause is something other than homosexuality. We have one scripture that suggests some kind of sexual immorality involved. I submit that there are more types of sexual immorality prohibitions against heterosexuals than there are homosexuals within the pages of the Bible. Of the hundreds and hundreds of times sex and immorality is mentioned in the Bible, only 6 of them can even remotely be attributed to homosexuality.

It occurs to me that when we consider the ratio, it is over a hundred times more likely that any sexual immorality involved in the destruction of those cities were of a heterosexual nature. Fornication, Adultery, Wife Swapping, and sexual rituals to worship pagan gods were OFTEN mentioned as reasons for the anger of god. Homosexuality is RARELY implied.

There is no REAL evidence that the men of Sodom intended to RAPE the angelic visitors. There is no evidence the men wanted anything more than to bully the visitors. Perhaps rob them, kidnap them and force Lot to pay a ransom, perhaps just kill them and leave them on the city gates to warn other mysterious visitors that Sodom isn't the place to stop. The story just doesn't say what the mob intended. I think the rape spin on the story is just apologetics. A controversy born of the mystery surrounding the definition of the phrase, "that we might know them."

The belief that Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed because of homosexuality is a modern belief. Nobody in the Bible ever made that claim so it had to have evolved AFTER the Bible was written. Modern Christians believe it because they are told to believe.

I still believe the homosexual spin on this story was created to distract people from the incestuous depravity that occurs immediately after that tragic display of god's wrath. Remember; these were the righteous few who were spared. Both daughters bore a child from the perverted affair. If that isn't sexual immorality, I don't know what is. How could god spare people capable of committing that type of immoral behavior?

This has always been a very ugly story from many different viewpoints. It is one of the many "moralist" motivational stories of the Old Testament. Its purpose is to show the absolute power over life and death of the Old Testament god. To show that the wicked will be punished and mercy will follow those who follow the laws of "Jehovah." The final climax being that after being spared the explosive destruction of the city, Lot's wife looks back at the only home she has ever known, perhaps a final farewell to the city that made her family rich. Perhaps with regret that so many of her family and friends would perish as she walked away. Nobody knows the motivation for looking back, but look back she did, and was transformed into a solid salt landmark.

Most Christians believe the homosexual spin because at least a thousand years of generations have been told that is the reason.

Most Christians have never read the Bible for themselves and must rely on preachers/bible teachers to tell them what it says. This leaves them vulnerable to the doctrinal differences on interpretation, without an actual search for truth.

Some must hold on to this misconception so that they continue to have biblical reinforcement for their discrimination and irrational hatred for a sexual orientation issue they cannot ever hope to understand.

Many just don't know any better and don't want to. It has become a near national pass-time to blame homosexuals and liberals for all the ills of society. Somebody has to be blamed and it can't be me.

Don't look at the incestuous righteousness, watch god firebomb the fags. If Sodom was destroyed for any kind of sexual immorality this was an early example of discrimination by God. God barbecued all of the infants and children of two entire cities, being deemed unrighteous, obviously based on events in their future, as they hadn't yet reached the age of accountability. God spared Lot's daughters even though they were days away from committing grotesque sexual immorality. I'm sorry, but there isn't anything worse than a father fathering children with not one, but two of his daughters.

Perhaps the question should be why do Christians focus on the "PERCIEVED" homosexual connection of this story but almost NEVER mention the ACTUAL incestuous one?

Answer 2

Of path that wasn't the motive. In all the verses that truthfully say why Sodom and Gomorrah had been destroyed, homosexuality is certainly not introduced up. People will convey up the in which the guys desired to rape the guest which was once an angel, nevertheless it certainly not says that Sodom and Gomorrah was once destroyed for that reason, and it's telling that humans see this as a homosexual factor rather of a rape factor. As for "unusual flesh" that was once within the NT, a ways eliminated from OT instances, and the way precisely does this imply homosexuality once more?

Answer 3

Perhaps the idea of the entire male population of the town trying to pound down Lot's door to rape the angels (and all inside the house, eventually, they threatened Lot also) gives most people the idea of a homosexual community.

While I realize that "rape" and "consensual homosexual sex" are two different things, the fact that these 2 beings, in appearance human, were singled out for such treatment DOES indicate part of the problem. This goes waaaaaaaaaaay beyond homosexuality and inhospitality!

The communities of this plain are mentioned again in Jude. Apparantly Sodom, Gomorroah, and the surrounding towns had "given themselves over" to sexual immorality and perversion. It may be that rape had become commonplace, among other things. Job, you will recall, had daughters of a marriageable age. His sons-in-law to be were part of the rape gang assualting his door!

Not a friendly place to raise a family. I'm amazed that Lot decided to live there at all. I really can't understand his wife, liking her "home town" so much that she just HAD to look back as it was being torched.

Answer 4

because it was,along with prostitution.God also said that they was arrogant,overfed and under concerned. they seen it as everytime newcomers would arrive was their chance for gang rape.

genesis 19: 1-12 tells the story of the 2 arriving angels of God,why they went to lots house and the arrival of the men of Sodom both young and old to have sex with the angels.
chapters 18:16-33,and the entire chapter of 19 discuses that. ezekiel 16:44-52 also goes into it.

your question is asking why is homsexuality wrong romans1:18-32 goes into it was a result of sin 1 corinthians6:9-11 states that the following will not inherit the kingdom of God sexually immoral,idolaters,adulturers,male prostitudes,homosexuels,theives,greedy,drunkards,slandersor swindlers. 1 timothy1:9-11 also goes into it a little more.
i hope you really read these scriptures. Some of the newer Christians,and ones that dont really study the bible much ,iagree think that.once they study things more they realize there is more to the story.

Answer 5

Actually according to Ezekiel 16:49, the reason for the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah was quite different: 'Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy.' Something to think about, isn't it?
The sexual depravity that is so common in our world today is not the cause of judgement but the result of God's judgement according to Romans 1: Because mankind refused to recognized God when He was so obfvious in creation, because they would not give Him thanks, He delivered up to all sorts of depravities and violence. We often get our issues confused, mixing the results for the root cause. We should start out by loving God and loving our neighbour, and these other questions will to a large degree take care of themselves.

Answer 6

Homosexuality was the primary sin associated with the cities. God had already decided to destroy the cities due to their sins prior to the angels going to Lot. The attempted rape was just another strike against them.

Abraham actually tried to convince God not to destroy the cities and God agreed that if He could find 10 good men in the cities, He would not. There were not even 10 good men in the cities.

Answer 7

You are correct in understanding that the intention of the men of Sodom was to RAPE the angels who appeared as men. You conveniently forgot to tell everyone, though, that Lot offered the men the opportunity to RAPE his vigin daughters. Now let's see. If I'm a heterosexual man and all I'm interested in is the violence of rape and I'm given a choice to rape a woman or a man ----- now let's see. HHMMMM. Which one would I rape. The one that fits my sexuality or the one that repulses me sexually. So yes rape is about violence but it is violence directed through sexuality. How would a heterosexual who is repulsed by the idea of homosexual sex be able to rape a man? Come on. You are casting a blind eye to the obvious.

Answer 8

Where do you think the word "sodomy" comes from?

And, how does sodomy assist in the first of God's commandments "Be fruitful, and multiply...Have dominion over the Earth, and subdue it..." ?

Reflect on why, in the New Testament, Jesus the Christ identifies that there is ONE sin, which is unforgiven, in this world and the next. Find out what that sin is, and that will give you a better understanding, of what kinds of sins actually are in violation of God's Laws, not just what the Bible-thumpers and Elmer Gantry-types out there, wish to assert.

Answer 9

I actually read that whole section of the bible and it said nothing of the sort. What I did read is that they were exceedingly wicked before the Lord. Rape is rape, doesn't matter who does what to whom.. I have yet to even find a passage that even mentions homosexuality.
It does say however, don't prostitute thy daughter lest she become a whore ( or harlot I forget ) and whoever lies down with a beast will surely be put to death.
If you do know of any passages, I'd love to know them. But I don't think God created people just to be persecuted. No matter what!
And even at that, LOVE THINE ENEMY> try!

Answer 10

Whether you accept that or not, the bible still says that sodomy is wrong whether in the Old Testament or in Romans chapter 1 in the New Testament. God does not approve of sodomy.

wikipedia:
Sodomy is a term of biblical origin used to characterize certain sexual acts that were attributed to citizens of ancient Sodom. The term is most commonly used to describe the specific act of anal sex between two males, or between a male and a female. The term "sodomy" also may include non-coital sexual acts ranging from oral sex to paraphilia. It is sometimes used to describe human-animal sexual intercourse (a.k.a. bestiality, zoophilia),
In the various criminal codes of United States of America, the term "sodomy" has generally been replaced by "deviant sexual intercourse,