The Papal Bull of 1540 supposedly says that the Pope when on his Throne is infallable. Is this true? No, cause if it was true then Gallaio wouldn't have spent his life under house arrest when he said that not only did the earth rotate around the sun but that other bodies existed and they rotated around the planets!!
2006-10-07 16:55:10
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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It was decreed by the Church. It does not exist.
After the Church declared celibacy, the Spanish Pope Borgia fathered several children, amongst them Lucretia Borgia, the famous poisoner. The Pope was responsible for the annihilation of the Cathars in 1244, because they had the genuine and true knowledge of Christ's teachings, and they lived up to them. Their example attracted more and more followers, so that the Pope started fearing that he is losing his power, and he ordered the murder of their entire communities. Unarmed men, women, and children were driven into huge bonfires to be burnt alive. Then the Pope destroyed all of their tecahings found amongst their properties, to silence the Truth about Christ forever.
How about the crusades and the Inquisition. Do they sound like the acts of Papal infallibility?
And in contemporary times, Pope John Paul II still condemned the use of contraception in countries that are heavily overpopulated, people are destitute, and experience an explosion of AIDS. Finally, what did the current Pope do to diffuse the tension in the midle East?
The Papal infallibity was decreed to stop people from questioning the unspeakable atrocities commited by the Church on the orders of the Pope, throughut the history.
No Pope in the history of the Church ever made a substantial contribution to the advancement of humanity, but most Popes did their level best to halt it and to keep people in darkness.
To find out more about the Cathars, who were the holders of the true teachings of Jesus Christ, click on "What is Spirituality" and "Rational Spirituality" on the Dhaxem website.
2006-10-07 19:38:26
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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ThePope becomes infallibel by resorting to blaspheme. Most Catholics will tell you that he only refers to Church teachings and interpretations of the Bible having the full council of the Holy Spirit. This is still blaspheme seeing that we are only human. No man or woman should ever claim the attributes of God on any issue. You may claim the Holy Spirit spoke to you, but then you must claim infallability of the Holy Ghost, not yourself.
Also, I hope you will study the book of Revelation and pray to God he will show you what is in store for the Catholic Church in the last days. I must tell you that Mother Mary was a sinner according to my Bible. You can't pray to dead people. This is akin to the sin of necromancy (calling up the dead). And transsubstantiation is untrue, although you can be punished by God for taking Communion unworthiliy. There are many other things wrong with the Catholic religion. They think the Muslims worship the same God. The Koran says Jesus was not crucified. The Muslims do exalt mary though. Muhammed's wife was a Catholic. In 1986 and 1989 and many times later the Pope John Paul 2 met in Asissi France with the world's religious leaders (every religion under the sun) and called on world unity and world prayer, 'because we all pray to the same God, just in a different way (not true)". The Pope also call Christian fundamentalists a cancer of the world and condemned them.
2006-10-07 19:04:28
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answer #3
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answered by epopsitsirhcitna 2
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That's a very good question. The first thing to be clear on is what it is not. It is not the same as impeccability. Impeccability would mean that they could not error in anything. That is not what Papal Infallibilty means. It also does not mean that the Pope cannot sin. The other thing to understand is that infallibility belongs to the body of bishops as a whole, when in moral unity, they teach true doctrine. As it says in Luke 10:16 "He who listens to you, listens to me." Also in Matthew 18:18 "all that you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven."
Some Bible references that speak of infallibility belonging to the Pope in special way are Matther 16:17-19 and John 21:15-17.
The gift of infallibility comes from the Holy Spirit. It has nothing to do with the piousness of the person.It is a protection from God so that error would never be taught? Remember that Christ said that the gates of Hell would not prevail against the church. So, just as the Bible must be inerrant, so must the Church's leaders in teaching of doctrine and morals so that men and women will know what to believe that they may have everlasting life in Christ.
The other thing to note is that it is rarely used. It has only been used when a particular doctrine has been called into question.
I know that this is brief, but I hope that it helps.
2006-10-07 17:07:14
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Papal infallibility is a commonly misunderstood practice of the Catholic faith.
Papal Infallibilty doesn't mean that the pope is perfect or that he is never wrong. Papal infallinility refers only when the pope is officially speaking on topic of faith and morals. And he is only "infallible" when speaking from Peter's chair.
Before the pope can make a "infallible" statement- he must consult with the cardinals and his advisers.
Yes, the pope was "just another guy" before he became a preist, but as the pope, when making official statements on faith and morals- he is strongly guided by the Holy Spirit.
And just another note: the pope doesn't have to be a preist before he becomes pope, usually he is, but it isn't "required".
2006-10-07 17:02:21
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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In Roman Catholic theology, Papal infallibility is the dogma that the Pope is preserved from error when he solemnly promulgates, or declares, to the Church a dogmatic teaching on faith or morals.
This doctrine was defined dogmatically in the First Vatican Council of 1870. In Catholic theology, papal infallibility is one of the channels of the Infallibility of the Church. Papal infallibility does not signify that the Pope is impeccable, i.e., that he is specially exempt from liability to sin[1].
Statements by a pope that exercise papal infallibility are referred to as solemn papal definitions or ex cathedra teachings. These should not be confused with teachings that are infallible because of a solemn definition by an ecumenical council, or with teachings that are infallible in virtue of being taught by the ordinary and universal magisterium.
2006-10-07 16:54:18
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answer #6
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answered by missourim43 6
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In the old testament, prophets of God delivered his word accurately and truthfully to the people. They were infallible when they solemnly invoked the name of God, and spoke his words.
In the times of Christ, the chief priest, corrupt as he proved to be, sat in the "Chair of Moses" and when he spoke according to the authority of his office, was also infallible.
Today, and since the time of St. Peter, when the Pope, who's office is given its' power and authority by God, speaks "from the chair" or Ex Cathedra, he is also considered infallible.
And while this was clearly defined in the 19th century, for purposes of clarification, it was understood and believed from the earliest days of the church.
The Pope has only spoken infallibly 2 times, thoughout the entire 2000 year history of the Catholic church.
This is due solely to the power of God, not man.
2006-10-08 01:58:47
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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in accordance to the Roman Catholic Church, this infallibility of the Pope, in basic terms while speaking ex cathedra, is a component of the Roman Catholic Church’s Magisterium, or the “coaching authority of the Church” which God gave to the “mom Church” to lead her infallibly. This “coaching authority of the Church” is produced from the Pope’s infallible coaching skill, the infallible coaching skill of church councils assembled decrease than the authority of the Pope, and the “basic” Magisterium of the bishops. This “basic” Magisterium includes, between different issues, bishops in diverse places beginning to show an analogous specific doctrine (working example the coaching that Mary replaced into conceived without sin), and that if this coaching beneficial factors attractiveness by using the church as an entire, it quite is a demonstration that the Holy Spirit is working by using the bishops and that this coaching is from God. The Pope would later comprehend this and proclaim infallibly that it comes from God and is to be accepted by all Roman Catholics.
2016-10-15 23:14:00
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answer #8
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answered by ? 4
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According to Vatican traditions what ever the Pope decrees, becomes a dogma that no one anymore is allowed to dispute. Of course the decree is always based on the cardinals submissions of their discourses on a certain topic or interest. Then the pope will take an extensive study on the matter after which his decision will be based both on its merit and the divine inspiration.
2006-10-07 17:08:09
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answer #9
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answered by Rallie Florencio C 7
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It was in 1870, I think, when the Pope of that time declared the "doctrine of papal infallibility"; i.e., that when he speaks "ex cathedra", (i.e., making solemn pronouncements) that he is doing so "infallibly". The problem, though, is whether he was "infallible" when he made that declaration in 1870.
I think there are other "denominations" which say their "leader", "president", "bishop", etc. is infallible too.
2006-10-07 17:00:06
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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