Could it be that Mary lost her virginity to her infant son after all?
2006-10-07 04:36:47 · 16 answers · asked by tammers 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Havent heard there was a caesarian that time. However, Jesus was conceived by the Power of the Holy Spirit and was born from a virgin. Virgin in the sense that no man ever lay on her. Virginity as you are talking is the physical aspect, whether the hymen was been broken. A child came out from her, what do you think?
2006-10-07 04:56:32 · answer #1 · answered by The young Merlin 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since Joseph did not have relations with Mary untill after the birth of Jesus, she was still a virgin. Breaking the hymen does not mean u r no longer a virgin. Having s e x for the first time means that u r no longer a virgin.
2006-10-07 04:43:24 · answer #2 · answered by dragonkisses 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
a woman isn't a virgin because of the fact her hyman is undamaged. The hyman could be broken in athletic and paintings activities besides as others. A virgin is a virgin because of the fact she never had intercourse. Mary replaced right into a virgin formerly she grew to develop into pregnant with Jesus because of the fact she never had intercourse with everybody, no longer because of the fact her hyman replaced into intact. while Jesus replaced into born, the beginning technique probably broke Mary's hyman besides the indisputable fact that it did no longer reason her to lose her virginity because of the fact being a virgin potential never had intercourse. The Catholic Church teaches that Joseph and Mary lived as sister and brother after Jesus beginning and so she remained a virgin because of the fact she persevered to no longer have intercourse with everybody. The Bible talks of Jesus sisters and brothers and the Catholic Church teaches that they have been from a prior marriage of Joseph and that they have been step brothers and sisters to Jesus. I even have study some writings of that factor that did no longer make it into the Bible that asserts that Joseph replaced right into a lots older guy while he married Mary, so as which could be real what the Catholic Church teaches.
2016-10-15 22:49:48 · answer #3 · answered by ranford 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary had a natural child birth and "NO", she didnt lose her viginity to her infant son, that's just a typical human disgusting way of thinking. Cesarean's were not around in the days of Jesus.
2006-10-07 04:40:32 · answer #4 · answered by Linda 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Loss of virginity is when you have sex for the first time. Hymens can break in a variety of ways, such as a bike accident, and you wouldn't say you lost your virginity to your bike, now would you?!
2006-10-07 04:40:46 · answer #5 · answered by OOO! I know! I know! 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Bible clearly says that Mary did not consumate the Marriage until AFTER Jesus had been born.
2006-10-07 04:40:33 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Didn't Jesus pass through the walls of the upper room without going through the door? Do not insult the Queen of Heaven and Earth
2006-10-07 05:19:46 · answer #7 · answered by Midge 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
to PANGEL
IT was not an immaculate conception. The immaculate conception describes the conception of Mary in her mothers womb without original sin. Not the conception of Jesus. Not to say it wasnt immmaculate, of course, but thats not what the immaculate conception is.
But to answer your question, mary was a virgin her entire life.
2006-10-07 04:50:52 · answer #8 · answered by Shane 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
An intact hymen is not required to be "virgin".
2006-10-07 05:13:48 · answer #9 · answered by June smiles 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
She was no longer a virgin at the moment her and Joseph had sex.
2006-10-07 04:45:17 · answer #10 · answered by Jillibean 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋