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I think it clearly was, but some argue it wasn't. How do they justify that belief?

2006-10-07 01:50:19 · 13 answers · asked by BABY 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

Jesus was pure and with out sin. God stresses the importance of the things you take into your body "must be cleaned and not uncleaned". firmented grape juice "wine" as we know it today, is spoiled grapejuice, and Jesus would not drink that, because He was always obedient to God.

Grapes were placed into "wine presses"-Probably from H5059 (in the sense of treading out grapes); a wine press (or vat for holding the grapes in pressing them): - (wine-) press (fat).

Wine has 3 different stages. Stage 1- juice of the grape. This is the wine that Jesus drank. It is also the wine that He turned water into at the wedding with His first miracle.

Stage 2- The alcholic "wine" that gets you drunk. This is not the wine Jesus drank.

Stage 3- Vinegar, which was used for medicinal purposes. All three are referred to as "wine"

Since God strongly stressed eating and drinking only clean foods and drink, Jesus would not have drank the alcholic wine, becaues He was obedident to His Father, God. Some things in the bible you must take on faith. If there is something that you dont understand like this issue of "wine" then turn to this scripture.

Proverbs 3:5 Trust in the LORD with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding.

2006-10-07 02:19:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Good question. It seems there are just as many passages in the Bible that condone the consumption of wine as there are that prohibit it. For example, consider Proverbs 20:1, Proverbs 23:20, Proverbs 23:29-35, Isaiah 65:8, Hosea 4:11, Joel 1:5. It is believed by some that "new wine" is unfermented. The argument can be raised: Why would the Bible say wine is acceptable in some verses, and prohibit it in others? A simple explanation would be that alcoholic wine is bad, while non-alcoholic wine is good. It would be interesting to see if there is any similarity in the ancient Hebrew and Greek for the terms wine and grape juice. Who knows if they made any distinction between the two? I don't really know.

2006-10-07 09:31:48 · answer #2 · answered by hmmm... 3 · 0 0

I beleive so. I know that there some evangelicals that insist that the "wine" that Jesus produced at the wedding in Cana was actually grape juice, but that interpretation is uncalled for. When the gospel writer wrote "wine" he meant "wine" and his original readers will have understood that as fermented drink.

2006-10-07 08:56:07 · answer #3 · answered by Phoebhart 6 · 2 1

Isn't the ferment what causes you to get drunk? I think it was because otherwise the Bible would not tell you not to be drunk with wine.

2006-10-07 09:11:39 · answer #4 · answered by paultara97 1 · 0 0

Yes. Everyone drank wine because it was safer than water. The children's wine wasn't as strong as the adults'.

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2006-10-07 09:07:21 · answer #5 · answered by Hatikvah 7 · 0 0

very interesting. thought that when JESUS turned the water into wine at his mother's request he simply placed dehydrated wine
( similar to our modern day kool aide type mixtures ) into the water and made wine for the guests to drink.

2006-10-07 09:52:02 · answer #6 · answered by Marvin R 7 · 0 0

wine is always fermented otherwise it whouldnt be wine. Use your brain please.

If wine wasnt fermented then why was Jesus accused of being drunk?

2006-10-07 08:54:55 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Anyone who thinks they didn't understand fermentation back then is an idiot.

2006-10-07 10:04:58 · answer #8 · answered by iknowtruthismine 7 · 0 0

Dont Know? Sorry

2006-10-07 08:55:28 · answer #9 · answered by #25Billy 1 · 0 1

yes

2006-10-07 08:54:16 · answer #10 · answered by george p 7 · 1 0

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