If the Covenant of Deuteronomy was based on a Suzerain-Vassal treaty, does this authenticate the document?

Question

by giving proper historical context of its writing or does it deligitimize it by showing how th Hebrews adopted practices of other cultures?

Answer 1

You might have difficulty proving the Covenant was "based" on a SV Treaty. However, showing that there were other similiar business dealings in existance at the time DOES help to "date" the document. It demonstrates that this Covenant did not exist in a vacuum, nor was it "made up" by a later author in a different locale.

It isn't unrealistic for God to set up a Covenant with His people, using a form they were already familiar with. People are simply comfortable with things they already know, and are more apt to accept a "familiar" covenant (contract) than a "foreign" one. When God spoke to the people (whomever was "tagged" as a prophet) He used their own language, also. That just makes good conversational sense. Sticking with things people already know and understand makes the process easier.

Answer 2

Well, both...sort of. It authenticates the age of the document and some of the historical facts. And yes, it also shows that the hebrews borrowed things from other cultures and that much of what they taught was not original.

Answer 3

Authenticate it in what sense? I think it helps to demonstrate that it is genuinely ancient, but that's not a point anyone contends.

Answer 4

You would have to say then that all religions are thus so. They have all incorporated ritual from other mostly pagan religions so as to more easily convert paganistic cultures.