Or was it done against her will? Was Christ born of rape? And if it was done before she got married - wasn't it premaritial sex? And wait a sec... she didn't marry the holy spirit, so that would make it adultery too... right?
2006-10-06 01:24:27 · 16 answers · asked by Jesus / Penis 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Great question. Since clergy people are so tight with the holy spirit this might explain why they molest little kids -Mary was quite young when she got knocked up. I guess all this pedophilia is just the physical manifestation of the holy spirit.
2006-10-06 01:26:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 3⤋
It was consensual, but no sex was involved, so the rest of your observations are not relevent. Luke 1:38 reads:
"Then Mary said, “Behold the maidservant of the Lord! Let it be to me according to your word.” And the angel departed from her."
Peace.
EDIT: I know you're also the first answerer. How did you answer your own question? (Same "member since" date, same number of points, etc.) This is against YA rules, so I have reported you. I urge all others to do the same.
2006-10-06 01:27:31 · answer #2 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wrong, Mary Knew exactly what God did, There was no sexual action taken. Jesus could NOT come through the sex act, because then he would have sin in him. That is why God put that seed in Mary womb. Sorry, you try hard to disprove Christainity, & the Bible, but you failed again.
2006-10-06 01:50:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Luke 1:37-39
37For with God nothing shall be impossible.
38And Mary said, Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.
Because there was NO sexual contact ...No to premarital sex No to adultery.
2006-10-06 01:30:33 · answer #4 · answered by williamzo 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
After she found out that she was pregnant, she considered herself fortunate and blessed, so I don't think you could say her impregnation was against her will. Mary became pregnant without having sex, so it is meaningless to talk about her committing adultery.
2006-10-06 01:31:55 · answer #5 · answered by David S 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course it was consensual. God sent His angel to tell Mary what He was asking of her. But it didn't happen until Mary herself agreed, saying "let it be done to me as you say".
2006-10-06 01:37:31 · answer #6 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was willing as She was a follower of her God. so no JESUS was not born of the act you refer to. as for the other questions there are those who may think these are of little or no importance.
2006-10-06 01:34:58 · answer #7 · answered by Marvin R 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God made the virgin mary pregnant with Jesus not any spirit. God is all and nothing compares to him. Mary wanted to please God and have a child of God. And no one married God. God is not compared to a man. God is not human he is above all. Nothing God does is wrong or bad and he does all bc he knows best.
2006-10-06 01:45:25 · answer #8 · answered by Noor 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary told the angel to let it be according to what he had said... . Sex wasn't involved.
2006-10-06 01:28:15 · answer #9 · answered by RB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You clearly haven't read the scriptures. It's not a hard thing: reading, and it often prevents you from asking questions that may embarass you.
2006-10-06 01:50:22 · answer #10 · answered by luvwinz 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋