2006-10-05 08:19:04 · 28 answers · asked by rosbif 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The word was mistranslated -- should have read "celebrate!"
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2006-10-05 08:21:57 · answer #1 · answered by Hatikvah 7 · 3⤊ 2⤋
First, Judeo-Christian tradition has always held that single people be celibate. This is taught by Judaism and Christianity from before the Scriptures were written down.
The question should be: Why can't priests marry?
This idea of a celibate clergy came from the Jews, John the Baptist, Jesus, and the Apostle Paul.
The Jews. The Talmud argues that a person whose “soul is bound up with the Torah and is constantly occupied with it” may remain celibate (Maimonides, Laws of Marriage 15.3). For example, Yahweh ordered the prophet Jeremiah not to marry (Jeremiah 16:1-4). Moreover, the Essenes was a group that was active in Jesus’ time that practiced celibacy and thought by most scholars to be the authors of the Dead Sea Scrolls.
WWJD? What would Jesus do? Jesus did not marry.
John the Baptist and Jesus are both believed to have been celibate for their entire lives. Some scholars believe that the example of the Essenes influenced either or both Jesus and John the Baptist in their celibacy.
The Apostle Paul is explicit about his celibacy (see 1 Cor. 7). There is also evidence in the gospel of Matthew for the practice of celibacy among at least some early Christians, in the famous passage about becoming “eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven” (Matt. 19:12).
The concept took many twists and turns over the years and will probably take a few more before Christ returns in glory.
With love in Christ.
2006-10-05 16:20:33 · answer #2 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
They are responsible for the care of the Church which is Christs Bride. The priesthood is prefigured in the Old Testament by the eunuchs who were to watch over Queen Esther. Scripture tells us that some eunuchs were born that way others are that way from accidents and still others are that way from their own decisions for the furthering of God's Kingdom. Jesus has said "My Kingdom is not of this world" so why do we keep looking at the priesthood through this worlds eyes. The real committed priests receive the grace from God to do this without any problems. They have done surveys with other ministers from different religions and have found that most of them admire the Catholic rule for the priests and wish they had the same thing after trying to support a marriage with their time and finances while trying to take care of all the parishioners too. It is just way too hard they say.
2006-10-05 08:28:10 · answer #3 · answered by Midge 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
That is a good question really in light of the fact there is a curious bible verse I think it's 1 Corinthians 9:5 and Paul is asking am I not allowed to lead about a wife like the other Apostles and Cephas (Peter). This seems to infer that they were allowed and may even have been married. That's Peter who Catholics consider the first Pope.
2006-10-05 08:26:02 · answer #4 · answered by Edward J 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They were married for a long time then the pope changed the church law governing it. I think it will return to how it was one day (and it will be for the good ) Incidentally , married Anglican clergy who wish to become catholics priests are allowed a dispensation ! so the the precedent is already there so I think it is only a matter of time . The Church is slow to change though . It could renew faith in a sadly tarnished image .
2006-10-05 09:00:00 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the early Church the Preists were married, this brought on a problem, it brought discord with those who they were supposed to minister to. So from tradition it has been set that priests should be celibate. This unknown to most has been in tradition for almost 1900 years.
Celibacy is a virtue that is to be held by all who are not married, including those who aren't priests, so that is why they are celibate to this date.
2006-10-05 08:27:55 · answer #6 · answered by Perhaps I love you more 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Originally, priests were allowed to marry, until feudal europe rolled around.
The church's lands were owned by the church, as was the priestly title. However, feudal europe meant that lands and titles passed from father to son and you had fathers insisting that their sons thus inherited the local church and becamethe new priest.
Church snapped its fingers, said, "Fine, no more marriage for you. This theft by inheritance is over."
In principle, there's nothing holding the church back from returning to a married priesthood. In fact, bishops are REQUIRED to be married according to the Bible, with children, so that you will know how they run a house -- if the children are unruly or the household unclean, how can you trust such a man with the house of God?
2006-10-05 08:21:28 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 0⤋
Because according to the Catholic Church Jesus was so he could devote all his time to spreading the word of God. They only decided this a few hundred years ago to prevent the land owned by the Catholic Church being divided among children of such marriages so to prevent inheritance they created the celibacy rule!
2006-10-05 09:05:47 · answer #8 · answered by gillybean 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This rule was passed at the end of the first millenium because clergymen were leaving lands and properties to their male heirs that the Pope wanted for the church. Nothing spritual about it. Purely an economic decision that had the unitended consequence of promoting pederasty.
2006-10-05 08:22:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Don't know because the Bible does NOT prohibit marriage. Those who did prohibit marriage were part of the great apostacy. See 1 Tim. 4:1-3.
2006-10-05 10:58:56 · answer #10 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only the Roman Catholics. The Orthodox , Coptic and Maronite Catholics can marry. Better.
2006-10-05 08:57:05 · answer #11 · answered by samssculptures 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋