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2006-10-05 04:37:39 · 9 answers · asked by jqdsilva 3 in Society & Culture Languages

9 answers

The basic concept BEHIND "last names" (to more specifically identify people) is ancient.

The practice of adopting "last names" of "surnames" as we know it (that is as a hereditary family name) has developed independently in various times and places.

Note this distinction -- not all last names or additional names [which is what "surname" means] are hereditary. In fact, they
were at first simply applied to an individual to specify "which John" was meant. Only later did they became hereditary, and so the true FAMILY name- last names we know today.

The earliest known case of established hereditary surnames was in China, where the use of family names was decreed around 2852 B.C. But there is no evidence the Chinese practice had any influence on the development of surnames elsewhere.

In the West there are two significant historical instances of surnames developing. The first was at the height of the Roman Empire, but it died out toward the end. It was NOT the origin of modern European surnames; they arose again independently.

The "modern" use of hereditary surnames in Europe began around AD 1000 in Venice, and gradually spread across Europe through the next few centuries (though some countries, such as the Scandinavian lands, did not fully adopt the practice till the 19th century).

Much of the reason for this is simple practical necessity. For example, as urban areas grew there was more need to disinguish "which John" was being referred to. Beyond simple conversation though, there was LEGAL & governmental need - to specify ownership of property, for the proper collection of debts and taxes, things no one wanted there to be confusion about! (unless you like paying someone else's taxes and having them claim title to your property!)

Not surprisingly, it was people of wealth and status -- major landowners and those claiming authority by descent -- who were the first to pass on their 'last names'. (But note that this did/does not always work as it does with modern family surnames. Some of these were TITLES, such as "Lord of [ESTATE NAME]" which for various reasons [e.g., lack of a son!] might be passed to someone else outside the immediate family.)

There are four common sources for our surnames:

1) place names - place of origin of individual or family - in Europe this was probably the first type of HEREDITARY surname. (Since people did not move around a lot it was easy for this name to be 'passed on' to offspring.)

2) patryonymics - name of father (occasionally matronymics); at first used only for one's own immediate father, only later did it become hereditary (so referring to a more distant ancestor), though people of station might use "son of [NAME OF ANCESTOR]" in order to make a claim.

3) occupation - again, used first for the individual, though the fact that many sons adopted their father's profession made it workable as a hereditary name.

4) nickname - a catchall category, including descriptions of all sorts, esp. of physical and personality traits. (Again, such names would apply best to an individual, though some of the features might well continue to be found in his offspring.)

Note that all these sorts of naming practices have been used for millenia by various cultures, even when there is no established or hereditary (family) surname. Some simple examples may be found in the New Testament, where we find the "Jesus" of the gospels (keep in mind that this was a COMMON Hebrew name) called "Jesus son of Joseph", "Jesus of Nazareth" "Jesus the carpenter [or 'the carpenter's son']" (many other examples of the first two, esp. "son of", cf. "Mary of Magadala" (later "Mary Magdalene")). (There is also the use of an ancestor's name -- "son of David" -- to identify him as a descendant of King David, which is important to the claim that promises made to David are given to him.)


Good overviews of the history, including how and when surnames were adopted in various places
http://www.mayrand.org/meaning-e.htm
(includes helpful HISTORY of giving of surnames, naming practices in various countries)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Family_name

Briefer discussions, with interesting tidbits (including examples of various types of surnames, common names' lists):
http://www.searchforancestors.com/surnames/origin/
http://www.francesfarmersrevenge.com/stuff/archive/oldnews2/surname.htm
http://www.last-names.net/Articles/Anatomy.asp
http://www.allinaname.com/art004.html
http://dusty.dyndns.org/genealogy/text/surnames.htm

2006-10-06 03:26:06 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 1 0

In the West, the custom comes as far back as from Rome, where all Romans had a Cognomen. Like this, for instance:

Gaius Iulius Cesar.

Gaius was his nomen, or first name, Iulius his cognomen, meaning that he belonged to the Iuli family (Iulius means: of Iuli)
Cesar was his common name in which everybody adressed him, only his family actually could call him gaius.
This is the very structure of latin names which subsists in today's countries where Rome once ruled.

In the East, India definitely had last names that belonged to castes, in China and japan there are Surnames, family names in the proper sensse of it, although it is written at first.

In Latin countries, also is customary to have two family names, from mother and father, such as:

Antonio Rivas Palacio

Rivas is paternal name, and Palacio is maternal, this being the full legal name.

I hope I helped some.

2006-10-05 05:19:35 · answer #2 · answered by Dominicanus 4 · 1 0

I don't know for sure. My thought is that is was once where people originated from. "John of such and such a town" Also, some last names such as Johnson, indicate that you are a son of John. So perhaps somewhere in the bloodline someone was named John. Some last names also seem to indicate a social status, etc. It's all pretty interesting,

2016-03-27 05:55:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Some people believe it actually started in France. Where the wealthy took of the habit of combining thier given name with the name of the town they are from and adding "de" meaning of inbetween. Ex: William DeParis, would be William of Paris. Others believe commoners picked up on this but used thier trades. Ex: William Goldsmith. It is believed that the French brought this custom to England.

2006-10-05 04:50:07 · answer #4 · answered by imtiredru 1 · 1 1

Before surnames people were referred to as John the Barber, James the Tailor, Ian the Sheepherder... In time names like these became John Barber, James Taylor, and Ian Shepherd...

Other examples Andrew who may have been John's son was referred to as Andrew John's son becoming Andrew Johnson...

2006-10-05 04:53:06 · answer #5 · answered by Andy FF1,2,CrTr,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 5 · 1 1

Usually indicating the father. For example: in the Odyssey, Odiseo's full name is Odiseo Laertiada, meaning "son of Laertes," Zeus name was Zeus Cronida, meaning "son of Cronos."
In Sweden, names are like Nils Holgersson, meaning "son of Holgers".
In Spanish, last names like Rodriguez meant "son of Rodrigo"

2006-10-05 08:38:08 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

In my home country of Wales there was a time when there were no surnames. People were call for example Dafydd ap Howell (David son of Howell). The Norman conquest changed that when they decided to give the Welsh surnames. Bummer really!

2006-10-05 04:47:21 · answer #7 · answered by dbharrold 2 · 1 1

It had something to do with a persons skill or trade.

2006-10-05 04:39:45 · answer #8 · answered by sabastian b 2 · 1 1

from the greek because every one was named nikki.

2006-10-05 04:39:20 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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