I do not belong to the Church of Christ faith and have nothing against them. I'll only share what I know from a relative that previously attended Church of Christ. She quoted to me the following verse in the Bible which she said that faith went by as their reason not to use instruments:
Ephesians 5:19, “speaking to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord.”
Since the verse only speaks of "singing and making melody in your heart" she shared with me they take this literally.
I hope this helps.
2006-10-05 03:35:52
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answer #1
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answered by son-shine 4
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good question! i am coC , have been all my life. here is the correct answer to that question. According to the Bible, singing is a required part of worship. We are to sing and make melody with our hearts, not musical instruments. In the days of the apostles, the church didn't use instruments in worship. Today, instrumental music is a tradition in most churches. That does not make it acceptable to God. "Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may keep your own tradition." Mark 7:9
2006-10-05 03:22:47
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answer #2
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answered by K 5
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Christ says he has "all authority" and the disciples were to teach the things He had commanded.(Matthew 28:18-20) No where in the New Testament did the apostles teach or show an example of the use of instrumental music in worship.
ALL of the verses in the New Testament that talk about music in the church are listed below. They all say the music is singing. To use another type of music can not be done from authority found in the New Testament because the New Testament no where authorizes its use. The authority to use instruments in the Christian church therefore does not come from God. If used it must be authorized by men. If we follow a man's authority (teaching), does Christ have "all authority"?
One of the verses that teaches about music is Col. 3:16. This verse specifically tells us to sing. The very next verse (verse 17) says, "Whatever you do in word or deed, DO ALL IN THE NAME OF THE LORD JESUS." "In the name of" means by the authority of, or according to the instructions. Jesus and the apostles did not authorize the use of mechanical instruments in worship. The New Testament did specify "singing" as the type of music we are to use in worship.
To do anything else is to follow the commandments of men rather than God. Such makes worship vain. (Matt. 15:9)
Why not be satisfied to worship in the way God's word has authorized?
When God told Noah to use "gopher wood", other types of wood were excluded. When Naaman was told to dip in the Jordan River, he knew other rivers were excluded (2 Kings 5). God has been specific about the music in the church, singing. Why add to his word?
Interesting, many of the founding fathers of denominations that now use instruments were opposed to their introduction. Among those against instrumental music were John Wesley, John Calvin, and Martin Luthur.
So the question should not be why we don't use them, the question should be "By what authority do you add them to your worship"? Why not be satisfied to simply worship as God's word instructs?
As for David’s harp, He lived under the Law of Moses (Old Testament). We are now under the Law of Christ (New Testament).
If you bind one part of the Old Law today, you are subject to keep the whole law. In Galatians 5:3, some were trying to bind circumcision, an Old Testament commandment. Paul said if they bound this one item, they were “debtor to keep the whole law”. In James 2:10, if you keep the whole law, but miss one point, you are guilty of all.
If you try to bring over authority for David’s harp from the Old Testament, you must with the same authority bring over all of the animal sacrifices, feasts, Passover, the Sabbath day observance, yearly trips to Jerusalem, and the allowance of polygamy. We must keep the whole law if we keep any part.
If we try to justify ourselves by the Law of Moses, we have “fallen from grace!” (Galatians 5:4)
*** Additional information added***
The answer after mine points to Rev 14:2 saying it showed harpers harping as worship in the New Testament. If the entire verse was read, however, one would see that John said he heard "VOICES" that were "like harpers harping".
Also, this is a symbolic vision of heaven. There are many things listed in this book that are (symbolically) in heaven, but not on Earth in the church today. Among these are horses, angels, various beasts, and inscence. This verse is not showing how we should worship in the church. It is symbolic of what John saw in heaven. There is no authority to add instruments to the worship of the church found in this verse.
2006-10-05 11:51:38
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answer #3
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answered by JoeBama 7
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Because they thought the New Testament does not state the use of stringed instruments in worship. They are incorrect because Rev 14:2 states that the "harpers harping with their harps" are all worshipping God. It is okay to worship God with string instruments.
2006-10-06 04:54:57
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answer #4
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answered by trustdell1 3
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They say it is because musical instruments are not mentioned in the NT. By that logic, churches should not have electric lighting, indoor plumbing or Bibles.
2006-10-05 03:12:55
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answer #5
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answered by Bad Cosmo 4
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Good question..Especially in light of Psalms 150..God bless.
2006-10-05 03:11:49
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answer #6
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answered by John G 5
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because their dogma, (man made rules of worship) declare musical instruments a work of the Devil and or evil in nature.
I disagree with their notion, because an inanimate object is neutral until used. it is the use of an object that makes it "good" or "evil".
2006-10-05 03:16:42
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answer #7
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answered by fullmoonwolf4real 3
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Because God prefers jazz.
2006-10-05 03:12:30
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answer #8
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answered by Isis 7
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We do use, guitar, organ etc..
2006-10-05 03:11:54
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answer #9
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answered by IQEinsten 2
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