If so, who do you figure did it? Was it a parting jab from Lucifer? Did he do it himself? Or is he some other non-specific gender, like a hermaphrodite or unich? I vote unich, because that would explain alot of the fits of rage he had in the old testament. What are your thoughts?
2006-10-05 03:06:31 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I think he and Lucifer did it on a dare kinda a Fear Factor thing!
2006-10-05 03:19:13 · answer #1 · answered by Katy_Kat 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Here is some clarification-
#1- The Bible teaches that before Jesus, all males were to be circumsized as a symbol or the Old Covenant. When Jesus came, He began the New Covenant, which requires a different sort of circumsizion, a circumsizion of the heart (which means repenting of the sin in your life, and submitting to God). The Old Covenant circumsizion was only a symbol and a shadow of the New Covenant circumsizion which was to come after it, just like the Old Covenant was a symbol and a shadow of the New Covenant. You can read about all of this in the Bible, specifically in the Apostle Paul's letters (specifically see Romans 2:17-29; Romans 4:1-25; Acts 11:1-18; Acts 15:1-28)
#2 God is not biologically male, because God is not a biological creature. He is God. There are only two senses in which He can be considered male.
One is grammatically, because we tend to refer to intelligent beings as "he" or "she". Historically, in most languages (whether you agree with it or not) the male pronoun has tended to be the default. Many languages don't even have a neutral pronoun (like Spanish), and refer even to inanimate objects as "he" or "she". Hebrew (the language the Old Testament was originally written in), from my understanding, either didn't have a neutral pronoun ("it"), or very very rarely made use of it.
The other way God can be considered male is symbolically. The relationship between a husband and wife, Biblically, is symbolic of the relationship between God and His people, between Christ and His church. Christ takes on the spiritual role that corresponds to a husband, and the church corresponds to the wife. This is why the church is often called "the Bride of Christ". (see Ephesians 5:22-33 Revelation 19:6-8 ; Revelation 21:9-10 ; Hosea 2:8-17)
One more note I should add, is that God was in fact circumsized! Jesus, God manifested in the flesh, came to earth as a human, and was born of a virgin. And He as circumsized on the 8th day after his birth, just like the Bible commands. (Luke 2:21) Who did it? Probably one of the Jewish priests.
2006-10-05 10:47:56 · answer #2 · answered by The Link 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Circumcision is a ritual designated for the Jews as a token sign of the covenant between God and Abraham.
Jesus was born into a Jewish family (Davidic family bloodline), so yes He would have been circumsized on the 8th day, according to the covenant.
Genesis 17
Luke 2:21
2006-10-05 10:24:33 · answer #3 · answered by Bob L 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
First of all, God is spirit, according to the bible, not a form ~ when I think of Him, I think of a source of light. Unlike His son, so circum- this was part of the Old Testament - a covenant between Abraham and God. When Jesus was born the new covenant was created. And Jesus said (New Testament) that if it was truly important we would be born that way. So we don't need to per se, but there is medical proof that it is healthier for the boy and the girls he will one day have sex with. So it is now a personal choice.
2006-10-05 10:18:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This question is meant for humor I hope. First of all God, the one mentioned in the bible is refered to a god the father, just because Father means the head. God certainly does not actually have gender. God the father, is a spirit, but can take form of anything. Erm but his natural state he has no body. So God the Father can not actually be circumsized.
2006-10-05 10:12:18 · answer #5 · answered by Hammy 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it's a subject you have clearly not spent a lot of thought on. Circumcision has more meaning than just the act of cutting off a foreskin.
Circumcision distinguished the Jews from everyone else. It's a mark of a covenant between God and the Jews.
2006-10-05 10:21:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Eight days later [after the birth], when the baby was circumcised, he was named Jesus, the name given him by the angel even before he was conceived. -Luke 2:21
Jesus was circumcised on the eighth day as per Jewish law. Jesus is the physical manifestation of the Word, who exists in the spirit realm, btw.
2006-10-05 10:15:43 · answer #7 · answered by Jay Z 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First God is a Spirit, but He ID Himself as male. Now if you are are talking when He became flesh, then you have Jesus and he is a male.
2006-10-05 10:24:04 · answer #8 · answered by Niguayona 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As a Jewish male, one can assume that Jesus Himself was circumsized. But really, who cares?
2006-10-05 10:10:59 · answer #9 · answered by Char 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
the bible says G-d wants JEWISH men to be circumsized, not "men" in general. and G-d is not male, so the second part doesn't even apply.
2006-10-05 10:11:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋