English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

26 answers

**LOGIC ALERT** Even if you WERE alive during his time, how would you KNOW he never sinned **LOGIC ALERT**

2006-10-04 06:38:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

Much of the Bible does come down to faith. There have been Roman Historians who confirmed Christ existed, but never wrote anything about his actions being anything but straight forward. You would think that if there was something, even if it was only a rumor, they would have mentioned it, since they were of another religion. Even Jewish Historians would have had cause to say that Jesus was less than perfect, but they don't. So, the best way to consider this question is to look at other sources than the Bible. There are several Jewish religions, just like Christianity, some of whom don't care what Christians think of them or what they say about Christ. Does any of them say that Christ sinned or did not do any of the things that is stated in the Bible?

2006-10-04 07:30:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

*LOGIC RESPONSE*: because if he had sinned, it would have disqualified him as Lord and Savior of mankind, and his death wouldn't have made a difference. But his death did make a difference, and all of the things he promised would happen did happen and are now happening:

- He rose again three days later and was seen by over 500 witnesses. His ressurection resulted because he was sinless in his life and death had no legal hold on him.

- His followers started doing some of the same miracles that he himself did and promised that they would. If he had sinned in his life, his follows could not have inherited his God-given authority over Satan.

- Because the Bible, the #1 bestselling book EVER, says so, and if it is the infallible Word of God, then we can trust that it speaks true. Over 300 prophecies were spoken about Jesus' life over 1500 years by over 40 different men; all of them are recorded in the four gospels by four other men to have come to pass. (What are the mathematical odds of that happening?)

One Man. One Death. Three years of teaching. One Book. Over 2,000 years later, the most influential religion the world and the most has ever seen, bar none. Whodda thunk it??

2006-10-04 06:55:06 · answer #3 · answered by Rodeba1 2 · 1 0

The Bible does not say he didn't sin. Of course he sinned. He was human. He probably asked for forgiveness; just like all other humans.
This does not contradict Christianity in any way. If he was God's son, then he was God's son. Him sinning, does not change that fact.
If you don't believe him to be God's son, then why should it matter?
Why is everybody up in arms at such an insignificant question?

2006-10-04 07:41:04 · answer #4 · answered by LadyMagick 5 · 0 0

You know in your heart, but mainly, God does not lie, his word is true, we who are followers just know what the word says is truth. He was the only sinless person that ever walked the earth. It's hard to explain to a person who is blinded to the truth. Humans lie, God does not. All my Christian Brothers and Sisters will pray for you. Oh and one other thing, logic has nothing to do with it. If you think for one second you can out smart God with "logic", honey, think again.

2006-10-04 22:14:09 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 1 0

Because there was a great cloud of witness in the bible that testified of his good works, healings, kindness,and love, people were drawn to him. The bible gives us many statements as to how he was a perfect man, without sin, as a ransom for all mankind. He settled the issue satan raised in the garden of eden. Satan more or less called God a liar by saying that Adam and Eve would not die if they ate the fruit. Thereby saying that he knew better than God and challenging his authority. Jesus lived as a perfect man a balance for the sin that had entered into the world.

(1 Timothy 2:5-7) 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, a man, Christ Jesus, 6 who gave himself a corresponding ransom for all—[this is] what is to be witnessed to at its own particular times. 7 For the purpose of this witness I was appointed a preacher and an apostle—I am telling the truth, I am not lying—a teacher of nations in the matter of faith and truth.

(Romans 3:21-25) 21 But now apart from law God’s righteousness has been made manifest, as it is borne witness to by the Law and the Prophets; 22 yes, God’s righteousness through the faith in Jesus Christ, for all those having faith. For there is no distinction. 23 For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and it is as a free gift that they are being declared righteous by his undeserved kindness through the release by the ransom [paid] by Christ Jesus. 25 God set him forth as an offering for propitiation through faith in his blood. This was in order to exhibit his own righteousness, because he was forgiving the sins that occurred in the past while God was exercising forbearance; 26 so as to exhibit his own righteousness in this present season, that he might be righteous even when declaring righteous the man that has faith in Jesus.

(Romans 5:16) Also, it is not with the free gift as it was with the way things worked through the one [man] that sinned. For the judgment resulted from one trespass in condemnation, but the gift resulted from many trespasses in a declaration of righteousness.

Note: In the same manner that God and Jesus are both righteous so also those that serve him must be aware of what his instructions are and to inherit what he has in store for us in the future must also be declared righteous.

(Proverbs 2:21) For the upright are the ones that will reside in the earth, and the blameless are the ones that will be left over in it. 22 As regards the wicked, they will be cut off from the very earth; and as for the treacherous, they will be torn away from it.

According to the free dictionary by Farley; the definition of righteous is; Morally upright; without guilt or sin.

2006-10-04 08:00:49 · answer #6 · answered by research woman 3 · 0 0

It is logical to assume Jesus never sinned, but that logic is based entirely on the Bible. If you do not see the Bible as a reliable source from which to make conclusions, then you will not view my comment as logical. I can understand that.

Example:
Lust is a sin.
Jesus never sinned.
Therefore: Jesus never lusted.

2006-10-04 06:40:08 · answer #7 · answered by Char 7 · 4 2

Christian, like myself) except what the Bible teaches.. ALL of it..
Hebrews 4:15
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

You don't have to believe it but it does answer your question as why we do... Jim

2006-10-04 06:43:58 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I trust the recorded history of His life. If the people in charge (politicians, priests, etc.) of the country at that time had REALLY wanted to kill the Jesus movement, they would have had to do one of 2 things:

1. Put his dead body on a cart and wheel it around Jerusalem with signs attached to it. "See, he really is dead, no ressurection here."

2. Discredit him by producing proof of even one sin. Generally this is not a difficult thing to do, given the basic nature of men.

They did neither. I have no reason to disbelieve the testimony of eyewitnesses.

How is my logic?

2006-10-04 06:40:20 · answer #9 · answered by MamaBear 6 · 5 2

Read Hebrew 4:15 He was tempted... but He was also without sin.

2006-10-04 06:43:03 · answer #10 · answered by nv 3 · 1 0

Because a bunch of guys who also weren't alive when Jesus was wrote that he didn't.

: P Yeah, beat that!

Just kidding again.

2006-10-04 06:42:25 · answer #11 · answered by Phoenix, Wise Guru 7 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers