We have a program that requires you to buy licenses. The licesnes are pooled so only a certian number of people can use it at once.
I found a way to bypass this and add users without buying a license.
Is this stealing?
2006-10-04 04:27:51 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Computers & Internet ➔ Software
If the agreement says you can only runt he program on X number of PC's and you have to buy a license to run it on more than yes it IS stealing. I don't see the difference between what you are doing and shoplifting something. You may say the price is too much but by pirating it you are also saying it has a value for me or my company. If it has a value and you use it you need to pay for it.
2006-10-04 05:04:35 · answer #1 · answered by N3WJL 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The software makers prefer to call it "Piracy" because they think that just saying stealing doesn't add enough drama.
People who "hack" those programs because they believe that the license prices are much too high prefer to think that the software makers are stealing from them and call those bypasses justice.
So you can find people on both sides of that issue and make your own judgment.
2006-10-04 11:55:29 · answer #2 · answered by Rich Z 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The total number of users _allowed_ simultaneously is the license that you have described. It depends on your EULA, but I would _guess_ that any number of computers can have the proggy loaded and that your license manager will allow only the number of purchased seats to operate.
For complete info, check your software EULA.
2006-10-04 11:31:18 · answer #3 · answered by credo quia est absurdum 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but I won't tell.
2006-10-04 11:37:05 · answer #4 · answered by patience3987 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋