English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

trying to take advantage of the illiterate people and the act included the Romans making seam as they were killing, but never did, like a movie of their time

2006-10-03 13:36:49 · 9 answers · asked by man of ape 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

He was like the einstein of that time. Plus, stories get exaggerated and stretched out as they are passed from generation to generation. It might have not been what its come out to be at all!

2006-10-03 13:38:26 · answer #1 · answered by nerveserver 5 · 1 0

If you had met Jesus during his state of humility here on Earth in the form of a man, you would have taken Him to be more than just a man. He spoke with a divine authority, He worked miracles (acts of God), and He accepted anyone as a follower. Most people believed He was the return of one of the major prophets and/or the Messiah. Few fathomed before His ascension that He was prophet, priest, and king.

2006-10-03 13:50:52 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

people should ask more why Paul claims to be a Fair You See (pharisee) when Jesus spoke about them poorly

or so it seems!

until you read many of the conflicting scriptures like John 3 with Nicodemus

Moses took advantage of the illiterate masses, a trained egyptian priest and his brother, Aryan

all tele evangelists know and share the same truth

a sucker is born every day and someone has to exploit them

Paul 4:8

it's scary what we WANT to be true vs what IS true

people will listen to what they want to hear

education, a sound one should focus on many studies and this will give a political advantage over those who shelter themselves

2006-10-03 13:47:34 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Yes, he had (and has) all the knowledge that is available for knowing. That is one reason he and his Father have no need to recruit smart people. They could raise up a generation of Einsteins if they chose to. They are interested in loyalty and reliability and committment and especially faithfulness.

2006-10-03 13:39:42 · answer #4 · answered by onelm0 7 · 1 0

The vast majority of people could not read or write at that time. It was an agrarian culture so He tought using parables that people would understand.

2006-10-03 13:41:57 · answer #5 · answered by S.A.M. Gunner 7212 6 · 1 0

Remember, He died for you too. You have your free will, He will respect your choice.

2006-10-03 13:39:14 · answer #6 · answered by SeeTheLight 7 · 1 1

he amazed the pharises too not just the common people.

2006-10-03 13:39:01 · answer #7 · answered by Lfeata 5 · 2 1

lmao. that is a new way of putting things lmaoooo

2006-10-03 13:41:28 · answer #8 · answered by uhohspaghettiohohs 5 · 0 1

Jesus was Two Crucified Thieves and Jesus began at Golgotha on two crosses inscribed with Jesus at the command of the Roman Governor, and the Gospel writers took it up from there, at Golgotha.

So, try reading your Gospels beginning at Golgotha, which is when all four Gospels realise that there WERE 2 thieves named Jesus.

The name of Jesus is a New Testament name that is nowhere to be found in the Old Testament, so that the Old Testament of the Bible disagrees with, or, it cannot be said to be in total agreement with this name that is used to identify the Messiah in the New Testament.

The four Gospels are the claimants of the crucifixion of Jesus Christ, and they are the Gospels of the crucifixion by four, that is to say, that they are used in repetition of the alleged crucifixion, but they are certainly not the Gospels of the fulfillment of the prophecy of the child as named in the prophecy and command of the Lord God of Israel of the Book of Isaiah (Isaiah 7:14) of the Old Testament of the Bible.

Two of the four Gospels (Matthew and Luke) make mention of the naming of the infant Messiah with the name of Jesus, which name defies the prophecy and command of the Lord God of Israel. (Isaiah 7:14)

Jesus of the Gospels replaces Immanuel (Isaiah 7:14), which is referred to as Emmanuel (Matthew1: 23). This represents an annulment of the command of the Lord, by an angel of the Lord, after the child was conceived in the mother’s womb (Matthew 1:20-21).

Matthew attempts to justify this annulment of the command of the Lord as a fulfillment of the prophecy as “spoken” by the prophet (Matthew 1:22), but the prophecy is again altered, with the authority for naming the child being shifted from the virgin to “they,” whoever they may be.

The prophecy and command of the Lord, was one of conception without a father, “a virgin shall conceive” (Isaiah 7:14), which is repeated in Matthew’s reference, with what seems to be a slight twist to the original prophecy, becoming, “a virgin shall be with child.” (Matthew 1: 23)

The command of the Lord (Isaiah 7:14) made no mention of father or spouse or husband, but the angel of the Lord effects a major adjustment to the plan of the Lord with the inclusion of Joseph, the spouse. Matthew introduces a pregnant wife who appears to be guilty of attempting to conceal her pregnancy from an annoyed and angry husband who harbors thoughts of putting her away. (Matthew 1:18-20)

Having cast aspersions on the character of the virgin with an uncharacteristic version of Scriptural fulfillment of prophecy, and with an atmosphere of mistrust, Matthew creates yet another annulment of the prophecy with the statement that, “she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.” (Matthew 1:18)

While Joseph slept, the so-called angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, and in an attempt to lend Heavenly approval to the scandalous affair, the virgin birth that was the promised “Sign” from “the Lord Himself” (Isaiah 7:14) became the official child of the Holy Ghost, “for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.” (Matthew I: 20)

“Then Joseph being raised from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: and knew her not till she had brought forth her first born son: and he called his name JESUS.” (Matthew 1:24-25)

The Gospel of Matthew opens the New Testament of the Bible with all of the confusion and doubt and conjecture that is spoken of in the Quran, in the lead up to the quadruplicating of the hoax of the crucifixion of the Messiah.

Luke reports that an Angel of God, Gabriel by name, appears to the virgin before conception (Luke 1:26-31), which would be before Matthew’s angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph “in a dream,” after conception. (Matthew1: 20)

Luke appears to be reading his command to the virgin from the prophecy of Isaiah (Isaiah 7:14) as he states, “And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.” (Luke 1:31) Here, Luke agrees with the earlier prophecy that the virgin shall name the son, with the exception and/or alteration of Immanuel, (Isaiah 7:14) and/or Emmanuel. (Matthew 1:23) and the insertion of JESUS.

Luke goes one step further and reports the naming of the child eight days after his birth, at his circumcision, at which time, “his name was called JESUS, which was so named of the angel before he was conceived in the womb.” (Luke 2:21)

Luke comes after the duplicated crucifixion of Jesus in the Gospels of Matthew and Mark, by which time Matthew has already named the child, who has twice gone through the crucifixion of Jesus King of the Jews.

Luke introduces a different chronological order of events that does not help to remove uncertainty and confusion, so that the breach of the command of the Lord God of Israel comes from what can be said to be:

·One or two different angels (the angel is not named in Matthew while Gabriel is the angel of Luke),
·In two different locations, (to Joseph, after he became conscious of her pregnancy, while he slept, in Matthew, and to Mary, before conception in Luke),
·On two separate occasions, (which is quite obvious, being before and after conception).

We are informed by Luke that the mother was aware that “that which was conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost” (Matthew 1: 20), before she conceived and after she “was espoused to a man named Joseph” (Luke 1: 27), and yet Joseph was not considered until after he contemplated putting her away for being unfaithful. This confusion and scandal must be viewed as no more than a sacrilegious distortion of Scripture.

We have Joseph being authorized to name the child Jesus in Matthew by the angel (Matthew 1:21) to which he complied (Matthew 1: 25). The mother is authorized to name the child Jesus in Luke (Luke 1:31), to which Luke offers no evidence that she did comply. Both Gospels therefore do agree that the virgin was in no way responsible for the alteration of the name of her child nor for the confusion in the naming of the child with an improper name.

Muslims are aware that Angels do not disobey the commands of the Lord. The prayer that states, “Thy will be done in Heaven, so in earth,” (Luke 11:2) indicates that the will of the Lord is honored by those in Heaven, which questions the existence of angels assuming the role of mischievous and disobedient messengers.

Faith in the power of the Quran will lead us to even more uncertainty in the reports from the Gospels of the Crucifixion, about the identity of the of the Messiah and the Jesus of the cross, of which Allah reveals as a magnificent hoax in which the Messiah surely was not the victim.

Have a GOOD read.

A-MEN!

2006-10-03 13:53:21 · answer #9 · answered by mythkiller-zuba 6 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers