In genesis, which was written by Moses.. why is it almost identical to earlier texts such as the hermes trismestigus? Then in the book Acts of the Bible, it states that "moses borrowed the wisdom of the egyptians". Also in genesis when sodom was destroyed because of gay people.. where does it say that they are gay? Because i have read and read.. then looked in ezekial where it brought up Lot and sodom again and it just states that they were detroyed for being not hospitable. Also, lot states to the crowd at the door to take his daughters cause they have not known man, however later he goes to get his son-in-laws that are married to his daughters.. why? obviously they had known man right? Or was the conversation even about sex? Was lot or his daughters later punished for having children together? When Lot went to stay in the mountain after the destruction, his 2 daughters got him drunk, had sex with him then had ben-ammi and mohab. What happened after? read my other??'s please!
2006-10-03 06:14:22 · 9 answers · asked by Vita 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
To CNM: what bible is that from?!? mine is totally different.. i am speaking from the KJV bible.. not laymenized or anything. Says nothing about sex.. and nothing about being pledged to the daughters... wow!
2006-10-03 06:26:16 · update #1
to TUBE MAN - i cited it in the question - Genesis lol read it , come back and answer.
2006-10-03 06:27:50 · update #2
To BOX FACE - obviously i read it, that is why there are questions. had i not read it, i would not have questions. But you did not have the answers either... so.. okay then? lol
2006-10-03 06:29:38 · update #3
I believe that God was not please by the action, and killed the infants.(NOT SURE). The men that cam to Lot's door wanted the strangers to come out so that they could have sex with them. And other book of the Bible also call homosexuality a crime against god.
2006-10-03 06:19:43 · answer #1 · answered by danicolegirl 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
In verse 5 of Genesis chapter 19 the men of the city went to Lot asking him to send out the men in his house so they can have sex with them.
According to what churches teach back in Lot's day an engagement was just as binding as marriage, but without the sex. So binding that the people engaged were considered already married, but without the sex explaining why Lot's daughters were virgins and also explaining why Mary mother of Jesus was a virgin, but Joseph was going to divorce her. According to what church leaders claim when you became officially engaged you had to divorce to break off the engagement.
Some Christians believe that the trouble we experience in the Middle East today is from the descendants of the illegitimate children of Lot and his daughters.
According to what some churches teach the only legitimate people in the Middle East are the Jews which are the remnants of Israel and the Hebrews, and all of the Arabs come from Ishmael, Lot and Saul's refusal to kill all people including women and children.
2006-10-03 14:08:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe I'll help you with one of your questions...you're all over the place, and space prohibits an answer to all your questions.
Concerning Lot offering his virgin daughters to the men of Sodom:
It was customary at the time to consider a betrothed (engaged) woman as a wife, even though the marriage ceremony was still to take place in the future.
The generally accepted view is that Lot's daughters were betrothed to their husbands, but because the wedding had not occured yet, they were committed, but still virgin.
This apparent discrepancy in the Bible (like many others) is explained easily by studying the social customs of the day.
Arranged marriages were the norm; the young men would often live with the young woman's family for a year, but intimacy was prohited, and difficult as the family would usually all share a common sleeping room.
Lot's sin was that he offered his daughters to the men, thinking that rape was less a sin than homosexuality.
2006-10-03 13:32:12 · answer #3 · answered by Bob L 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Respectfully, the facts on which most of your questions are based as so full of error that I truly doubt you really read much, especially the Bible. Just where do you get these, uh, "facts" from, my dear?? Hermes is credited with writing 20,000 books by Iamblichus (ca. 250-300 BC), a Neo-platonic Syrian philosopher, and over 36,000 books by Manetho (ca. 300 BC), an Egyptian priest who wrote the history of Egypt in Greek, perhaps for Ptolemy I. It was the myth about his god, Seth, who supposedly is credited with writing all of the world's religious writings. His writings are dated well after Moses was long dead and gone.
The book of Acts in nearly all translations does not say that Moses "borrowed" the wisdom of the Egyptians, but that he was "learned" in the wisdom of the Egyptians, due to the fact that he himself was raised as an Egyptian. Regarding Sodom and Gommorah, they were men seeking sex with other men; that was the reason the crowd gathered at Lot's door. I believe that same sex practice is exactly what "gay" means. The act of "sodomy," or anal sex, derives its name from the town of Sodom. My dear, you don't need answers to your questions: it sounds like you need to put your guard down and really read the book without bias or pre-judgment. It sounds more like your seeking to find fault with the Bible and not really studying to understand it. That isn't hard to do with the Old Testament and all of the Hebrew cultural differences and nuances of over 3,000 years. You'll find easier reading in the New Testament. A good Bible study with a knowledgeable teacher might help. Good luck in your seeking.
2006-10-03 13:40:16 · answer #4 · answered by Rodeba1 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
doesn't the bible state that they were fornicating ?? (I mean in Sodom,, (by the way where do you think the name of the sex act for gay men comes from)
maybe you need to read the bible in order to answer your questions but maybe you need to do some research as well .. but your bible should be one that is translated to English from the originals .. not a copy of a copy otherwise it is like playing the party game called either party line or gossip
2006-10-03 13:55:47 · answer #5 · answered by Tupperware Lady 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It does say that they were homosexual. His daughters were not married, they were engaged. Read Genesis 19:1-29 again.
Genesis 19:4-5 Before they had gone to bed, all the men from every part of the city of Sodom—both young and old—surrounded the house. They called to Lot, "Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them."
Genesis 19:8 "Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man".
Gensis 19:14 So Lot went out and spoke to his sons-in-law, who were pledged to marry his daughters.
2006-10-03 13:18:36 · answer #6 · answered by cnm 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The funny part about Sodom is that the aspect of hospitality was extremely important to the ancient Greeks. I guess early Christians 'borrowed' that too.
2006-10-03 13:18:22 · answer #7 · answered by bc_munkee 5 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Too many questions at once. Break it down to single question so that it can be answered. Also cite your sources. You can't just throw down some phantom scripture and then walk away without citing it.
2006-10-03 13:18:59 · answer #8 · answered by TubeDude 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Lady, you can read the bible from now till thy kingdom come, you will only get more unansable questions.
2006-10-03 13:20:29 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋