2006-10-03 04:55:17 · 12 answers · asked by Hacker 3 in Consumer Electronics ➔ Other - Electronics
It's an acknowledgement signal to the exchange to open a line. Once the line is established the remaining digits are used to route the call. It's a bit like the redundant 9 which is used to prefix numbers on some private exchanges.
2006-10-03 04:56:57 · answer #1 · answered by GoogleRules 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2017-01-19 01:48:02 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe that the idea is that when the system is full for a particular area, then they will start on phone numbers starting with 1.
2006-10-03 04:58:02 · answer #3 · answered by nontarzaniccaulkhead 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why do all American phone numbers start with a one?
2006-10-03 05:10:39 · answer #4 · answered by NikC 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
dialing was changed about 3 years ago so all phone numbers include the area code and that is why all btitish phone numbers include their area code.
2006-10-03 04:58:50 · answer #5 · answered by carla s 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The original dial plan reserved the digits 1-9 for features or direct access to telco services
2006-10-03 05:04:29 · answer #6 · answered by Michael H 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dialling "0" connects you to the national network instead of just the local exchange. In the same was as dialling "9" from many office phones connects you to the local exchange, instead of the internal telephone system.
2006-10-03 05:10:11 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the same reason landlines begin with 0
2006-10-03 05:08:16 · answer #8 · answered by yes darling 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it's only the area codes that begin with zero
2006-10-03 04:57:47 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Simply to tell the exchange that your not dailing a local number. I think
2006-10-03 04:59:14 · answer #10 · answered by john g 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋