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What I mean is, didn't the Israelites always use a patrilineal lineage and not a matrilineal? When did the change occur and why?

2006-10-02 18:47:22 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

i am just going to copy and paste my answer from this same question about an hour ago.

"there are some biblical passages (i can't name them offhand) that demonstrate that jewishness was just passed down by the mother and not the father. from what i understand this rule became absolutely solid when the romans invaded israel and were raping and impregnating the jewish women. to ensure that their children were not considered "lesser jews" by the community and discriminated against, the rabbis made it absolutely clear that anybody with a jewish mother was a full jew, no matter who the father was."

EDIT

and also what gratvol said about tribe being patrilineal

2006-10-02 18:50:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

The Matrilineal came first. and the names of the CREATOR were all femine. Patrilinel came next an changed the names of the CREATOR to male names.
The males got tired of being second class citizens and the mess the females were making of their rule.
The Males by them selves are doing just the same.
Don't you wish the would see the light.

2006-10-02 18:56:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

They use the mother's lineage, because you can guarantee thatshe is indeed the mother,but with the amount of wars and rapes against Jewish women, even in the time of Jesus, you could never be sure who the father was. Of course, now that we have DNA testing, it doesn't matter any more.

2006-10-02 21:16:38 · answer #3 · answered by judy_r8 6 · 0 0

No, they used both. Otherwise Mary's geneology would not have been in the Bible. Matrilineal is more accurate. Who knows who the father of a child could be? But the mother is a sure shot.

2006-10-02 18:49:49 · answer #4 · answered by AuroraDawn 7 · 0 0

They have always done this, its a matriarchal society. The main reason seems to be that it is easy to prove who your mother is and, in the light of centuries of persecution there have often not been too many males around. Also its a way of assimilating children born as a result of rape or some other such abomination. it is women who have carried on the traditions at many times in Jewish history.

2006-10-02 18:52:27 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

both lineages were used.


Paternal was used to denote tribe status while Maternal was used to note Jewishness.

Their was never any change in this, the reason why is that one could always be sure who the mother of a child was, the same could not be true for the father thats why the more important atribute was always with women.

2006-10-02 18:49:29 · answer #6 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 3 0

A non-Jewish friend of mine explained it this way:

"Paternity is an opinion, Maternity is a fact."

2006-10-02 18:51:54 · answer #7 · answered by ye_river_xiv 6 · 0 0

There must be some mistake, I do believe it has not changed.

2006-10-02 18:52:00 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

idunno

2006-10-02 18:49:39 · answer #9 · answered by papaofgirlmegan 5 · 0 2

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