"One small step for a man, one giant leap for mankind", or "One small step for man, one giant leap for mankind"? Admittedly, I'm not big on grammar, but I don't see a difference, do you?
2006-10-02 15:24:14 · 10 answers · asked by kellygirlaj 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
There is a massive difference:
one small step for A man = one small step for him personally
while
one small step for man = one small step for humanity
Leaving out the 'A' makes turns it into the equivalent of saying:
one small step for mankind, one giant leap for mankind
while what he was supposed to say was the equivalent of:
one small step for me personally, one giant leap for mankind.
which is quite a difference.
2006-10-03 09:16:46 · answer #1 · answered by blah de blah de blah... 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The missing "a" makes his statement sound redundant. One small step for man(kind), one giant leap for mankind. It's the same thing - using man and mankind. But, by saying "One small step for A man, one giant leap for mankind" he' s talking about one small step for him, a single person, rather than for all man & mankind.
2006-10-02 22:30:40 · answer #2 · answered by Kaaren1969 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Other than the question mark at the end, I don't see any difference. But I don't think that his statement ended in the form of a question. I believe that the was referring to the accomplishment that we (mankind) have opened the door to a new frontier.
2006-10-02 22:32:06 · answer #3 · answered by mzatk 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The first statement "a man" refers to him. The second statement 'man' refers to the species, just as 'mankind' does. Therefore, the second statement is repetitive and/or redundant.
I'm waiting for some vacuum head (not air head, at least they have SOMETHING between their ears) to say he never went to the moon at all. I wonder how many responses will it be for someone to expose themselves as a idiot.
2006-10-02 22:34:20 · answer #4 · answered by SPLATT 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Some "sensitive" group doesn't want a man to speak for their group too, so saying "a man" as opposed to "man" narrows the supposed intention to mean one male individual as opposed to "mankind", which, according to some narrow-minded individuals seems to exlcude "womankind". God Bless you.
2006-10-02 22:35:04 · answer #5 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, there is a difference.
In the first example he would be referring only to himself, but in the second example he is referring to man in general. In other words, all of us.
2006-10-02 22:36:34 · answer #6 · answered by JSalakar 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yeah, what she said. BUT, he claims he said it with an "a" and now some audio experts claim they found the missing "a". I think it is perfectly fine the way it happened.
2006-10-02 22:34:18 · answer #7 · answered by baseballandbbq 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't really get it either.
Like, in my opinion shouldn't we just realize that people make mistakes? And shouldn't we just focus on how cool it was that he went on the moon? I think that's what REALLY matters.
2006-10-02 22:32:19 · answer #8 · answered by sweetdollツ 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's politically correct...it's like saying "weight-challenged" instead of "fat"!
2006-10-02 23:05:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
i don't think it makes any diffenence. who cares?
2006-10-02 22:32:02 · answer #10 · answered by #!@#^$*#($ 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋