The question was put to..(clearly throat), scholars. Every single answer to the question qouted many verse's that employ the words, put to death. If these so-called scholars are really scholars, then they would know that " put to death " and Murder are two completly different words and meaning's. Yet when I, ( a mere student) write that murder is to lay and wait and premeditate, I get all thumbs down. So if my argument is bogus, then please enlighten me on the meanings of those two words. And to save you the trouble , I'll boho and poor me myself.
2006-10-02 10:10:58 · 6 answers · asked by Royal Racer Hell=Grave © 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
both are premeditated. however put to death is more of a term for execution for breaking a law, where murder is out of hate/spite. if someone is being put to death its because they commited an act that requires such a punishment. where if someone is murdered, they might not have had any reason to die.
however im not really arguing against you, and i didnt give you thumbsdown just sharing my 2 cents. lol.
2006-10-02 10:14:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Murder may or may not be premeditated. Hence the phrase "premeditated murder". In US law premeditated murder is called first-degree murder, and a "crime of passion" so to speak, where there is no premeditation, is called second-degree murder. These are just legal definitions though, mind you.
2006-10-02 10:21:33 · answer #2 · answered by The Resurrectionist 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are correct as to the legal definition of murder, however in context, I believe the meaning was "murder" as in to kill for no real reason other than a mythological rationalization. Although murder does not necessarily mean "lay in wait"... one merely needs the mens rea and actus rea of having intentionally killed another.
And to the guy below me:
1) If your own full brother, or your son or daughter, or your beloved wife, or you intimate friend, entices you secretly to serve other gods, whom you and your fathers have not known, gods of any other nations, near at hand or far away, from one end of the earth to the other: do not yield to him or listen to him, nor look with pity upon him, to spare or shield him, but kill him. Your hand shall be the first raised to slay him; the rest of the people shall join in with you. You shall stone him to death, because he sought to lead you astray from the Lord, your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, that place of slavery. And all Israel, hearing of this, shall fear and never do such evil as this in your midst. (Deuteronomy 13:7-12 NAB)
2006-10-02 10:15:15 · answer #3 · answered by Blackacre 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Killin's killin', isn't it? Do you have the right to take another's life away from them, for any reason? I don't believe so, so "put to death" means the same to me as murder. Perhaps he should have generalized "the taking of another's life on purpose"?
2006-10-02 10:19:04 · answer #4 · answered by Phoenix, Wise Guru 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Put to death, is to execute a person for murdering.
Murder is to kill with premeditation.
2006-10-02 10:21:52 · answer #5 · answered by nevada nomad 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No one answered the question (last I checked). The question asked whether other religions had similar present tense commands...edicts...prescriptions to murder now.
The mindless PC drones merely pasted allegorical old testament text, which no human contrues as a requirement to murder today.
They didnt get this distinction...its all the difference in the world. Heres a PRESENT TENSE COMMAND TO MURDER NOW >>>
“FIGHT (Jihad) THOSE WHO BELIEVE NOT IN ALLAH” http://cwis.usc.edu/dept/MSA/quran/009.qmt.html
2006-10-02 10:16:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋