2006-10-02 07:13:47 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
Yes, these areas were once part of Mexico (Mexico becoming independent in 1821 which sparked the Monroe Doctrine of 1823). Texas declared its independence March 1, 1836. The US annexed the Republic of Texas in 1845. Then from 1846-1848 the US and Mexico fight the Mexican War. The U.S. declares war on Mexico in an effort to gain California and other territory in Southwest (May 13, 1846). The war ended with the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo (Feb. 2, 1848). Mexico recognized the Rio Grande as new boundary with Texas and, for $15 million, agreed to cede territory comprising present-day California, Nevada, Utah, most of New Mexico and Arizona, and parts of Colorado and Wyoming.
2006-10-02 09:45:39 · answer #1 · answered by E D 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
California New Mexico & Texas were not states at that time they were territories and they were claimed by Mexico, and Mexico was claimed by Spain and France
2006-10-02 07:20:00 · answer #2 · answered by ? 6 · 2⤊ 3⤋
Your point would be? Does that mean the french can come back and claim Arkansas, Missouri, Iowa, Minnesota west of the Mississippi River, North Dakota, South Dakota, Nebraska, New Mexico, northern Texas, Oklahoma, Kansas, the portions of Montana, Wyoming, and Colorado east of the Rocky Mountains, the portions of southern Manitoba, southern Saskatchewan and southern Alberta that drain into the Missouri River, and Louisiana ?
We paid for that land too. And what about Alaska? Also paid for. Move on to a new argument, you are boring us.
2006-10-02 07:19:05 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 3⤋
Use to be... see link below...
Part of this treaty, the US paid Mexico $15 Million plus took on the responsibility for $3.25 Million owed to US citizens by Mexico.
2006-10-02 07:20:37 · answer #4 · answered by j H 6 · 4⤊ 1⤋
we paid Mexico good money for the territory
2006-10-02 07:39:11 · answer #5 · answered by refriedbean415 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Most of the southern US west of the Mississippi was at one time Spanish and then Mexican. Florida was once a Spanish colony. Read the articles linked below for an understanding of this issue.
2006-10-02 07:19:11 · answer #6 · answered by david42 5 · 2⤊ 2⤋
All of them were part of Mexico with the exclusion of Utah.
2006-10-02 07:22:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
was mexico the territory of spain?
2006-10-02 07:36:07 · answer #8 · answered by Nick F 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No. They wanted it. They fought for it. They LOST it FAIR AND SQUARE and have absolutely NO RIGHTS to it now or ever!!! All the illegal aliens should go back home.
We fought and died and payed for our freedom and to be the best nation in the world and we deserve it and we should NOT be handing it out to any jose, maria or saddam!!
2006-10-02 07:34:35 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
No it isn't for those who say it is why hasn't Mexico did anything to reclaim the land. It's been there for years they sure as hell are not interest in obtaining it or doinh anything to suggest they will
2006-10-02 07:20:43 · answer #10 · answered by Zoe 4 · 1⤊ 3⤋