For all of you who don't know, gay men and women who have had sex with gay men are banned from giving blood. Women are only banned for 12 months, but gay men are banned indefinitely.
I am currently writing the FDA to complain about the discrimination facing gay men so if anyone has any resources to help, it would be appreciated. I would encourage you to write the FDA as well. Any resources/law material would be very helpful!
2006-10-02 04:17:26 · 20 answers · asked by linkbaseball 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Civic Participation
How they ban you is asking if you are in high risk behavior: Drug use, taking money for sex, visiting or being born in Africa and having sex with sex with a man who has had sex with a man (women who have had sex with a gay man as well.) I understand that this is considered high risk because not everyone uses a condom, but I do have safe-sex. I am protesting that at the very least, no sexual contact for 12 months should allow the blood to be properly sampled. After 3 months 95% of the HIV antibodies form and 99% after 6 months. It is **** that a man can have sex (even with protection) with one man and be permenantly banned from donating blood.
2006-10-02 04:33:05 · update #1
They don't accept blood because gay people run the risk of having serious sexually transmitted diseases - mainly AIDS or HIV. Doesn't it make sense that they want to quarentine someone that has it so it doesn't spread throughout the population? If a blood recipent gets tainted blood, it would be like handing them a loaded gun to commit suicide with.
If gay people give blood to other gay people, you also run the risk of contamination. What if the homosexual recipient doesn't have AIDS, but the blood they get does?
Don't blame the FDA. When you think about it, they are only trying to protect you and those who need blood.
(I apologize if my answer insults or hurts you. That wasn't the point. I was only trying to show you the reasons why the FDA functions the way it does.)
2006-10-02 04:27:07 · answer #1 · answered by Oklahoman 6 · 8⤊ 5⤋
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2016-05-17 04:56:51 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-09-19 05:53:44 · answer #3 · answered by Dolly 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that's because gay adult males are "at more suitable threat" of having stds so that they received't take our blood. for my section, i imagine that's unfair and ridiculous, particularly even as they have a shortage of blood donors and they are continually available encouraging human beings to donate. If i'm ever requested i'd probable say i'm immediately. i understand i'm a virgin and sparkling, so why could I truly have my blood refused over some thing as irrelevant what gender i detect eye-catching. that's probable an exceedingly old regulation on the concern of old research.
2016-12-04 03:23:25 · answer #4 · answered by mehaffey 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I recon it is discrimination, people who are gay don’t automatically get HIV - and especially long term gay relationships, what risk do they pose? In my eyes none.
Its the same with straight couples who have has unprotected sex...with each other? again I see no risk when they are both safe in a loving relationship..
I don’t about the US but here in the UK things are changing fast and some of the comments bellow would be seen as criminal and the people would not accept it.
If I am in a car crash and need blood I wouldn’t care where or who it came from as long as it was CHECKED and marked safe.... isn’t all blood in the US checked? it certainly is here meaning 70s/80s HIV thing that happened cant happen? right? OR is your corrupt FDA filling your homophobic section of the population with propaganda becasue they arent checking the blood... :O
2014-02-26 03:05:45 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Like it or not, being gay is a high risk category for contracting AIDS and HIV. There is nothing political about the decision of authorities to disallow certain high risk people from giving blood.
It is not a political issue, it is a public health issue. It is also a wise practice until a cure for it is found.
2006-10-02 12:45:27 · answer #6 · answered by Slimsmom 6 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Anybody who has Amal sex is at risk of catching hiv so there shouldn't be a question about strictly having sex with men when they're clearly not the only ones that have Amal sex.
2016-04-28 07:21:48 · answer #7 · answered by Connor 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When AIDS activists and researchers told the FDA that AIDS was as being spread buy blood contamination know it all doctors wouldn't believe them. So when activists were proven to be Right, the FDA elliminated gay men for spite.
2006-10-02 15:40:49 · answer #8 · answered by razor 5 · 5⤊ 1⤋
I have never heard of this before. D0n't they test all the blood anyway? I suppose they think it's a way to avoid higher risk of HIV contaminated blood, but it's discrimination.
2006-10-02 04:30:35 · answer #9 · answered by mld m 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I believe that AIDS can lie dormant for up to 10 years. Gay men and intravenous drug users are considered high risk my most medical establishments.
2006-10-02 04:21:09 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋