Why has the Bible been edited so much if its the word of God?

Question

The word bible isnt even in the bible, so there begins the human fabrication, how can someone claim its the word of God if it was changed so much by humans. The New Testament was written 200 years after Jesus(pbuh) died and in a language he didnt even speak. Jesus didnt even call himself a christian(another fabrication). In the Bible Jesus predicted that ppl would worship in vain, "But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men." This verse, Matthew 15:9. Which is the true one. Why are there so many mistakes in the bible surely this cannot be attributed to God (e.g. of conflicting verses II Samuel 6:23 Genesis 6:3 John 5:37). Lastly i dont understand how christians can claim monotheism when they worship jesus and God, how can he be the Son of God and God at the same time this is the biggest contradiction. Would a true believer ask God why he has forsaken him, how did he talk to God(if hes God). anyway doesnt sound like he was ready to die for my sins

Answer 1

You need the King James version (not the new King James). It is the most accurate. The other versions (NIV, Annotated, ect.) have been tampered with.

Answer 2

The word bible means book. So the fabrication is from you.
It has not been changed so much by humans. It has been translated and copied over and over. there have been some mistakes in the copying. We never said that the copyist were inspired by God. The Gospel of John and Hebrews are believed to have been written before 70 A.D. Your 200yr remark is pure foolishness. Jesus did say that he was the Messiah. The word Christ means Messiah. So to be a Christian simply means to be a follower of Christ. In Matthew 15-9 Jesus is quoting Isaiah. So he was talking about the Jews of that time, not Christians of today. 2nd Samuel 6:23/ Genesis 6:3/ and John 5:37 do not talk about the same thing. I don't know how you think they could conflict when they are unrelated. God was, is, and always will be God. He took a part of himself and became a child. He was still God because Jesus came from God. When Christ Said "My God My God Why hast thou forsaken Me" he was repeating a prayer said by David.

Answer 3

You have raised some very good questions, and I am willing to bet a lot of Christians are not prepared to answer your questions.

The Bible is a collection of 66 books written by more than 40 authors, in 3 languages, in 13 countries spanning 3 continents and over a period of 1,600 years. The fact that so many different authors wrote almost exactly the same words without even knowing each other or having access to their texts has to be more than coincidental.
The largest number of manuscripts of any ancient writing is 643 for the Iliad. By comparison, the number of manuscripts of the New Testament exceeds 15,000! But even with all these different copies of the Bible, there is an amazing 87% agreement between them. And we're not talking about major differences here, but "Bethesda" versus "Bethsaida" differences, or the lack or presence of "the." There is only one original copy for Plato's "The Republic," yet no one disputes the fact that Plato was it's author!

And don't forget the fact that every prophecy in Scripture, with the exception of Christ's return to earth, has been fulfilled to the letter. Check and see how many times in the Gospels that it says "this happened to fulfill what was written by..." No other religion can make this claim.

The reason there have been so many revisions of the Scriptures is because, if you know anything of Greek, Hebrew, or Latin (the languages in which the Bible was written), you will know that they are not easy languages to translate. There are hundreds endings to root words that affect whether the word is active, middle or passive, male, female, or neutral, past, present, future, aorist, 2nd aorist, etc.

It is not easy to determine these, and language experts are constantly trying to come to a concensus on what is the most accurate interpretation. And as I said, they are not major changes to doctrine, but the lack or presence of articles, and the like.

However, the Bible is crystal clear when it comes to Christ's deity.

* Explicit Assertions (the NT use of theos [God] applied to Jesus Christ): Jn 1:1-4; 20:28; Rom 9:5; Tit 2:13; Heb 1:8; 2 Pet 1:1.
* Other Applications of Divine Names to Christ: Is 6:3 and Jn 12:37-41; Is 9:6; Is 40:3; 1 Tim 3:16.
·* Divine Functions of Christ: Creator, Jn 1:3 and Col 1:16; Sustainer, 1 Cor 8:6; Col 1:17; Heb 1:3; Author of Life , Jn 1:4; Acts 3:15; Ruler, Mt 28:18; Rom 14:9; Rev 1:5; Forgiver of Sins, Mk 2:5, 10; Acts 13:38.
* Christ Possesses Divine Attributes: Eternality, Is 9:6; Mic 5:2; Jn 1:1-2; Omnipresence, Mt 18:20; 28:20; Jn 3:13; Omniscience , Jn 2:24-25; 21:17; Rev 2:23; Omnipotence, Is 9:6; Phil 3:21; Immutability, Heb 1:11-12; 13:8.
* There are many other texts and categories that could be cited.

For example:

Matthew 1:23 "Emmanuel - God with us"
Revelation 1:4 the Father is the One who is, was, and is to come - compare with Revelation 1:8 Christ is the One who is, was, and is to come
Revelation 1:8 - compare with Isaiah 41:4 and use of the word "almighty" with reference to Christ
Revelation 1:13-16 compare description of Christ here to Daniel 7:9-10 where it describes the Ancient of Days - who they will admit is God the Father
Romans 14:8-9 The Greek word kurios is translated as "Lord" 4 times in all of 4 uses in this passage (3 in reference to God the Father, and once in reference to the Son, Jesus Christ)

Oh man, I've delved a little too deep, I think. If you want me to go into more detail, contact me via my 360 site. There are answers to your questions, just more than time and space here will allow for!

Hope this has helped.

Booyakasha!

Answer 4

"The New Testament was written 200 years after Jesus died" -- Actually Matthew was said to be written in 60-70AD, Mark 66-70 AD, Luke 60-63 AD, John 65-85 AD
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel

Jesus didnt even call himself a christian, A Christian is a follower of Jesus of Nazareth, referred to as Christ. - So why would he be a Christian? http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christian

If you read all of Matthew 15:9 you will see that Jesus is telling the Pharisees what hypocrites they are and quoting from Isaiah 29:13.

And the bible verses you have listed have nothing to do with one another.

Christians believe in ONE God - The Holy Trinity is ONE God
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holy%5FTrinity

I hope you were truly seeking answers.

Answer 5

Is Our Copy of the Bible a Reliable Copy of the Original?
by Rich Deem http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/bibleorg.html

Old Testament
How do we know the Bible has been kept in tact for over 2,000 years of copying? Before the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls, our earliest Hebrew copy of the Old Testament was the Masoretic text, dating around 800 A.D. The Dead Sea Scrolls date to the time of Jesus and were copied by the Qumran community, a Jewish sect living around the Dead Sea. We also have the Septuagint which is a Greek translation of the Old Testament dating in the second century B.C. When we compare these texts which have an 800-1000 years gap between them we are amazed that 95% of the texts are identical with only minor variations and a few discrepancies.

New Testament
In considering the New Testament we have tens of thousands of manuscripts of the New Testament in part or in whole, dating from the second century A.D. to the late fifteenth century, when the printing press was invented. These manuscripts have been found in Egypt, Palestine, Syria, Turkey, Greece, and Italy, making collusion unlikely. The oldest manuscript, the John Rylands manuscript, has been dated to 125 A.D. and was found in Egypt, some distance from where the New Testament was originally composed in Asia Minor). Many early Christian papyri, discovered in 1935, have been dated to 150 A.D., and include the four gospels. The Papyrus Bodmer II, discovered in 1956, has been dated to 200 A.D., and contains 14 chapters and portions of the last seven chapters of the gospel of John. The Chester Beatty biblical papyri, discovered in 1931, has been dated to 200-250 A.D. and contains the Gospels, Acts, Paul's Epistles, and Revelation. The number of manuscripts is extensive compared to other ancient historical writings, such as Caesar's "Gallic Wars" (10 Greek manuscripts, the earliest 950 years after the original), the "Annals" of Tacitus (2 manuscripts, the earliest 950 years after the original), Livy (20 manuscripts, the earliest 350 years after the original), and Plato (7 manuscripts).

Thousands of early Christian writings and lexionaries (first and second century) cite verses from the New Testament. In fact, it is nearly possible to put together the entire New Testament just from early Christian writings. For example, the Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians (dated 95 A.D.) cites verses from the Gospels, Acts, Romans, 1 Corinthians, Ephesians, Titus, Hebrews, and 1 Peter. The letters of Ignatius (dated 115 A.D.) were written to several churches in Asia Minor and cites verses from Matthew, John, Romans, 1 & 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, 1 & 2 Timothy and Titus. These letters indicate that the entire New Testament was written in the first century A.D. In addition, there is internal evidence for a first century date for the writing of the New Testament. The book of Acts ends abruptly with Paul in prison, awaiting trial (Acts 28:30-31 (1)). It is likely that Luke wrote Acts during this time, before Paul finally appeared before Nero. This would be about 62-63 A.D., meaning that Acts and Luke were written within thirty years of ministry and death of Jesus. Another internal evidence is that there is no mention of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. Although Matthew, Mark and Luke record Jesus' prophecy that the temple and city would be destroyed within that generation (Matthew 24:1-2 (2),Mark 13:1-2 (3), Luke 21:5-9,20-24,32(4)), no New Testament book refers to this event as having happened. If they had been written after 70 A.D., it is likely that letters written after 70 A.D. would have mentioned the fulfillment of Jesus' prophecy. As stated by Nelson Glueck, former president of the Jewish Theological Seminary in the Hebrew Union College in Cincinnati, and renowned Jewish archaeologist, "In my opinion, every book of the New Testament was written between the forties and eighties of the first century A.D."

With all of the massive manuscript evidence you would think there would be massive discrepancies - just the opposite is true. New Testament manuscripts agree in 99.5% of the text (compared to only 95% for the Iliad). Most of the discrepancies are in spelling and word order. A few words have been changed or added. There are two passages that are disputed but no discrepancy is of any doctrinal significance (i.e., none would alter basic Christian doctrine). Most Bibles include the options as footnotes when there are discrepancies. How could there be such accuracy over a period of 1,400 years of copying? Two reasons: The scribes that did the copying had meticulous methods for checking their copies for errors. 2) The Holy Spirit made sure we would have an accurate copy of God's word so we would not be deceived. The Mormons, theological liberals as well as other cults and false religions such as Islam that claim the Bible has been tampered with are completely proven false by the extensive, historical manuscript evidence.

Answer 6

The Bible has never been edited.You posting the same question over and over again will not change this(John 17:17)

Answer 7

u are mistaken go to this site it will give u more details about when the new testament was wrote

http:/www.carm.org/questions/written_after.htm

Answer 8

who knows...