If a woman you know said she was pregnant but the baby had come from god, would you believe her, or would you think she had actually had sex and was lying about it? Is there any good reason to doubt such a story today but believe the very same story in the Bible?
2006-09-30 14:19:55 · 21 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Well since I don't believe in the first immaculate conception - I prefer to believe that to be human you have to receive 23 chromosomes from each parent - I certainly wouldn't believe anyone in this day and age telling me. I'd think they were just trying to get attention.
2006-09-30 14:23:57 · answer #1 · answered by genaddt 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Many Protestant religions do no longer have self belief in unique Sin -- so the stainless theory isn't an difficulty for them. lots of the teachings of the Catholic Church aren't any more easily contained in the Bible -- yet follow logically from what's there. i imagine that the conception of the stainless theory follows logically from the have self belief that Jesus is God -- and God does no longer be carried by skill of a woman whose soul became marked with sin. As for Mary last a Virgin, there are 2 rationalization why Catholics have self belief she stayed a virgin at the same time as Protestants imagine that she had different toddlers. the first reason includes translation blunders and the second one reason is that Protestants have excluded books from the Bible that mean that she remained a virgin. First -- the interpretation blunders. The KJV says that Mary had no kin individuals with Joseph till Jesus became born. In English, it really is implied that they DID have kin individuals after his delivery. in spite of the indisputable fact that, contained in the unique Greek, there is not any such implication. The KJV also refers back to the brothers of Jesus. in spite of the indisputable fact that, the unique Greek makes use of a note that only skill 'close relative.' Catholics have self belief that those human beings are cousins. The Apocrypha has been portion of the Catholic Bible because the Bible became finalized on the Council of Rome contained in the fourth century. Protestants have thrown out those books. yet in a unmarried of those books, Mary expresses concerns over her marriage to Joseph because she has taken a vow of virginity. Catholics have self belief that the mum of Jesus would not in any respect destroy a vow to God -- so she would have remained a virgin -- even after the delivery of Jesus.
2016-11-25 19:34:33 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God only needed one Son, he has no use for another, that plan has already been fulfilled by Jesus.
I hate to tell you this, but will
No it wont happen again today,
Jesus came to take away the sins of the world,
the perfect plan of God.
I pray for your wisdom, and your strength, to consider sex was the reason she got pregnant.
And the man, well don't think he was a Christan,
all Christan men know Gods says to be abstinent. Sex before marriage, is sin.
Christan men, well they don't do this,
so I don't think, she and God had a thing going on, God hates sin. and can not sin. Trust me she had sex.
2006-09-30 14:36:48 · answer #3 · answered by cadac1946@sbcglobal.net 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The immaculate conception does not refer to the conception of Jesus but to the conception of Mary, her mother getting knocked up and having her. This is so that Mary could be free of "original sin" and thus fit to be the mother of God. You people all need to review your catechisms!
2006-09-30 14:27:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Virgin birth is a common religious metaphor meaning the awakening of consciousness. It's been used in other religions, too (e.g it metaphorically describes the buddha as well). It's completely incorrect when it's taken as a literal virgin birth.
UPDATE: Note that 'immaculate conception' does not mean the virgin birth; it means that Mary was conceived w/o original sin.
2006-09-30 14:23:51 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely not. Only God can perform and did perform the Immaculate Conception with our Blessed Mother Mary, so that Jesus was born and put on earth to save us.
2006-09-30 14:24:21 · answer #6 · answered by mandm 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, you would have to test the child then. Every child could, and constantly does, bad things in his life, so if the child was truly from God, He could not sin. That alone could amaze me.
And Jesus had to come somehow didn't He? He wanted it to be kept fairly secret His true identity, and told the healed often times not to tell anyone what happened.
Some people wanted to crown Him immediate ruler but He fled from them. He knew that He came to die.
Even if you don't believe in the virgin birth, does that alone make it impossible for God to incarnate Himself? And if he DID, He cannot lie, so it must be a virgin birth.
2006-09-30 16:30:01 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no i would not belief cause its only the blessed virgin mary is the right to have an immaculate conception means that god gave her a son which is jesus and she is a true virgin cause his birth is immaculate just appear or got pregnant without sex okay
2006-09-30 14:35:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The immaculate conception is the Catholic doctrine that Mary was born without sin. It is not the virgin birth.
2006-09-30 14:22:41 · answer #9 · answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You misunderstand the meaning of 'Immaculate Conception'... it is the doctrine that Mary was born without original sin.
2006-09-30 14:24:43 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋