The Isralites were being punished for griping and sinning against G_d. When they griped about the manna for instance this was a really bad thing because the Manna represented G_d which meant they were turning against G_d. John The Baptist was very very strict about his beliefs and was holy but I donot think that the passage was was referring to him.
There are several passages within the Old Testament which are generally interpreted by Christians as being prophetic of John the Baptist in this role.
These include a passage in the Book of Malachi that refers to a prophet who would prepare the way of the Lord:
Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the LORD of hosts. - Malachi 3:1
Though the interpretation of this passage as referring to a forerunner of the Messiah was uncommon amongst Jews prior to the 2nd century BC, it became significantly more common under Hellenic, and later Christian, influences. [citation needed]
Isaiah 40:3-5 is interpreted by Christians as referring prophetically to John, based on John's own statement as written in John 1:22-23:
He said "I am the voice of one crying in the wilderness, Make straight the way of the Lord, as said the prophet Esaias"
Unlike the other Synoptic Gospels, which introduce John the Baptist into the narrative as an adult, the Gospel of Luke provides an account of his infancy. According to Luke, John the Baptist was the forerunner of Jesus Christ, and son of Zacharias and Elisabeth; his birth, name, and office, were foretold by the angel Gabriel to Zacharias, while Zacharias was performing his functions as a priest in the temple of Jerusalem. According to Luke, Zacharias was a priest of the course of Abijah, and his wife, Elisabeth, was of the Daughters of Aaron Luke 1:5; consequently John automatically held the priesthood of Aaron, which, to the Jews' eyes, gave him authority to baptize in the name of God.
Luke states that John was born about six months before Jesus, and that Zacharias' unbelief over the birth of his son led to him losing his power of speech, which was only restored on the occasion of John's circumcision (Luke 1:64). On the basis of Luke's account, the Catholic calendar placed the feast of John the Baptist on June 24, six months before Christmas.
2006-09-30 16:15:17
·
answer #1
·
answered by NonnieFrog 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
John's sole purpose was to be the forerunner of the Christ. To show that baptism was necessary for the new birth into a more spiritual life. (not to be confused with spiritist or spiritism, denoting association with evil spirits)..
2006-09-30 20:53:38
·
answer #2
·
answered by mrcricket1932 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
He was trying to get people to repent of their sinful ways before it was too late - before the promised Messiah came - trying to save souls through baptism.
2006-09-30 22:24:35
·
answer #3
·
answered by judirose2001 5
·
0⤊
0⤋