English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

There is a verse in the Quran [Al Tawba 9:60] that lists people who are eligible to receive Sadaqa (financial support). Surprisingly, among those people who are eligible to receive charity money are people who are newly converted to Islam.

Does anyone know why should Muslims pay charity for people who are newly converted to Islam? If those people are poor they should simply receive charity as "POOR", which is the first category of people who are eligible to receive charity money.

Also, Islamic history tells that prophet Muhammed used to give large amount of money to tribe leaders to convince them to convert to Islam.

Is this some kind of a bribe?

2006-09-30 05:14:50 · 7 answers · asked by Bionimetiket 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

What's wrong with bribes? It works with little children. If you want one to be quiet until lunch, offer an extra dessert.

I like bribes better than threats. If this was a Christian or Jewish kiddie story, there would be a threat of no lunch at all or no lunch and a whipping in exchange for being quiet.

All three Abrahamic faiths are messed up, anyway.

2006-09-30 05:19:15 · answer #1 · answered by nora22000 7 · 1 0

I don't believe that what you heard about the prophet was true, it may have goven the leaders charity but i highly doubt it was a bribe. But the Quranic verse is true. People who convert to Islam are usually shunned by there families in the beginning. they usually are left with nothing not even the people they thought would always stand by them. In most cases they need financial aid. Also this charity goes to further educating them on Islam.

2006-09-30 12:22:01 · answer #2 · answered by dreams 3 · 1 0

In the early days of Islam, a convert was to become an outcast from tribe, the tribal protection was withdrawn, so, infact the person was 'poor' until he was rehabilitated, in due course of time. Therefore such persons were also entitled to benevolence. The word 'bribery' was apt, if the pay-out was doled out before conversion...not after conversion.

2006-09-30 12:24:33 · answer #3 · answered by hasanmuizudin 4 · 1 0

How is that different from Christian missionaries who exchange food and other necessaries for converting to Christianity?

2006-09-30 12:37:19 · answer #4 · answered by Left the building 7 · 2 0

No i dont think you are allowed to bribe people to attract them to a religion, any what so ever..

2006-09-30 12:16:37 · answer #5 · answered by DARIA. - JOINED MAY 2006 7 · 0 0

It's better than threatening them with eternal damnation.

2006-09-30 12:16:05 · answer #6 · answered by Edna "Dirrty" Bambrick 1 · 0 0

it is a fruad,there is only 1 God

2006-09-30 12:38:02 · answer #7 · answered by sinner 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers