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The Pedophilic Verses against 3-year old girls:
The pedophilic Biblical verses are Numbers 31:17-18 and Numbers 31:35-40. Below, you will see DETAILED HISTORY on these SPECIFIC verses from the Jewish Talmud explaining the pedophilia that took place against the 3-year old slave girls under the direct command of Moses.
While Christians are not obligated to follow the laws of the Talmud in their social lives, but the historical FACTS that exist in the Talmud about the Biblical verses Numbers 31:17-18 and Numbers 31:35-40 below, and how the "BIBLE FOLLOWERS" during those days were mostly pedophiles who literally forced sex on 3-year old girls after Moses' supposed 'Divine' order is clear indication that the Bible condones pedophilia.
Christians are not the only "Bible Followers". Jews are too!
You also need to keep in mind that Christians are not the only "Bible followers". Jews are too, and what ever they did counts for and against the Bible.
So while the pedophilic mentioned verses don't exactly specify the 3 years old minimum age limit, but they most certainly don't condemn it, and according to the Talmud's detailed elaborations on the verses, as shown below, and what actually took place during their events, the verses actually allowed it, AS MOSES HIMSELF ALLOWED IT!

Moses' Commands for pedophilia against 3-year old slave girls do count against the Bible!
As shown in the quotes below:
"....The Tannaïtic Midrash Sifre to Numbers in §157 comments on the above quoted commandment of MOSES to kill the Midianite women as well as the male children...."
"....According to the Tannaïte Rabbis, MOSES therefore had ordered the Israelites to kill all women older than three years and a day, because they were "suitable for having sexual relations." ...."
"Said Rabbi Joseph, "Come and take note: A girl three years and one day old is betrothed by intercourse....."
"A girl three years and one day old is betrothed by intercourse. "A girl three years old may be betrothed through an act of sexual intercourse," the words of R. Meir. And sages say, "Three years and one day old."....."
The following was taken from http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/guido_deimel/judaism.html regarding Numbers 31:17-18 in the Bible:
Numbers 31:17-18 "Now kill all the boys [innocent kids]. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man."
Now my question is why slave girls were treated like this at those times?

2006-09-29 23:08:54 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

talk about ignorant..bethroted by intercouse does NOT mean sex, intercourse means communication and debate thefore your whole argument falls flat on its face. You are one really sad individual

2006-09-29 23:11:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6 2

the Bible doesn't say how young the women children were or what was to be done with them . You are assuming that because the Talmud says it's o.k. that the Bible must condone it as well. This is faulty. Fornication is a sin. I'm not a theologin so I cant tell you what if any was the legal age to marry. But don't say what you say about the Bible Because the verses you list have not proven any pedophilia.

2006-09-29 23:51:31 · answer #2 · answered by epopsitsirhcitna 2 · 0 0

To start off - the new testament does not condone intercourse outside of marriage, and the verse you are quoting applies to a specific situation for the jewish kingdom at a specific time in their history.

The jews had just conquered the Midianites who were gentiles, and the jews had a habit of falling into temptation sexully and religiously throughout their hiistory (read from the time of Abraham onwards). The commandment to kill all women who were 'deflowered' was meant to follow the law as set down in the desert, and this then meant that the Jewish men could have gentile girls as concubines and slaves. As far as peodophilia is concerned this a modern concept as girls from the age of 12 were considered of 'age' sexually in Jewish law (Mary was only 12 or 13 when she gave birth to Jesus).

Finally just because the Talmud states a certain view does not make it true - indeed most Jews would find that view very hard to swallow if you interpret this verse so literally.

2006-09-29 23:21:03 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Why slaves are treated poorly by their captors I can't answer. I do know it still happens today, mainly with women in the sex markets of certain countries.

Your quotations of the Bible sound very confused to me.

2006-09-29 23:24:19 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

are you kidding here???? where EXACTLY bible says.... "Girls at the age of 3 were forced into sex"" ..... you people are Liars.....
wake up people, wake up... dont believe everything , if anyone post about bible . take the bible and read it to know the truth.
this stupidity beyond human understanding....

2015-09-12 21:05:07 · answer #5 · answered by andrew v 2 · 0 0

I read both passages and did not see either of them condone rape of a child.
I would also like to know where in those passages the age of 3 comes from. I think you have been listening to someone who is not necessarily speaking the truth.

2006-09-30 01:17:53 · answer #6 · answered by Miss Vicki 4 · 0 1

Correction, sir. The text you are attempting to site actually reads:

17 Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, 18 but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man.


You have been ill informed, my friend. I am choosing to believe this rather than the idea that you would purposely distort scripture in order to attack the Jewish/Christian faith. Nowhere in the text does it read as you have posted, that female children over the age of three are suitable for sex. In fact, according to Jewish law, among the scriptures that you have misquoted, anyone having sexual relations, of any kind, to a person or thing that is not their marriage partner was to be punished with death.( " 'If a man commits adultery with another man's wife—with the wife of his neighbor—both the adulterer and the adulteress must be put to death. Lev 20:10)

The people spoken of in the texts referenced by yourself were descendants of Abraham. They knew of the ways of God but chose, not only to defy Him, but intentionally set out to seduce the Jewish men, so as to lure them away from their God. It was more than certain that without putting an end to this tribe, they would have continued their deceit until all of God's people had turned from Him. Virgins were saved for marriage, as they were not the malicious deviants attempting to sway the people of God. Indeed, women were property in those times and as long as a woman had been respectfully purchased (as opposed to using a woman that one had given nothing in return, a disgraceful act of disrespect to the woman and her family) God's law did not prohibit the aquiring of slaves, servants or wives. Allowing any males to live though, would have ensured the continuation of the liniage of the tribe.

All of the above stated in addition to the well known fact that "God's ways are not our ways." Who are we to question His intentions or motives? I believe we earn that right when we successfully create and maintain a universe of our own.

I hope this clarifies the scripture for you.


Be Blessed and Blessed Be

2006-09-30 00:36:05 · answer #7 · answered by Celestian Vega 6 · 0 0

1

2017-02-28 16:35:29 · answer #8 · answered by Ann 3 · 0 0

I don't believe a Prohet can do that and we also kno that the Bible has been changed throughout history so some facts maybe wrong.

2006-09-29 23:11:17 · answer #9 · answered by Huda_Alee 3 · 0 1

Wow,

Yes that is correct.
There is no denying it, if we are to believe the holy books. Not much we can do about it though.

That stuff is gross for sure.

2006-09-29 23:38:19 · answer #10 · answered by zurioluchi 7 · 2 0

What is your interest in pedophilia? Very curious that you would even think that way unless???????? I'm not sure our prayer can help you.

2006-09-29 23:25:16 · answer #11 · answered by DeeJay 7 · 0 1

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