listen devils if god wrote a book it would contain 0 errors dummies. the lie: Matthew 2:23 And he went and dwelt in a city called Nazareth, that what was spoken by the prophets might be fulfilled, "He shall be called a Nazarene that is not in the old testament jerks the nt lied and said it was but its not. liars will burn in hell.
2006-09-29
13:07:29
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16 answers
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asked by
Lahaina Baptst Church
1
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
another error: Instead in the Hebrew text the reference is to the yam suph. The word yam in Hebrew is the ordinary word for "sea," although in Hebrew it is used for any large body of water whether fresh or salt. The word suph is the word for "reeds" or "rushes," the word used in Ex. 2:3, 5 to describe where Moses' basket was placed in the Nile. god doesnt now the difference bettwen red and reeds? boy u god damn idiots r dumb,
2006-09-29
13:10:37 ·
update #1
the correct answer u spiritual jihadists is: there is no god damn quote in the tankh. listen im a hebrew and greek scholar and have studied the bible 20 years. if you havent spent that much time studying u r beneath me so dont even bother trying to challlenge me.
2006-09-29
13:18:37 ·
update #2
Who claims that the Bible was written by God?
Certainly not anyone who knows anything about the Bible.
2006-09-29 13:10:57
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answer #1
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answered by Ranto 7
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I'm amazed that you list only two errors. Others have posted a similar question with more than 100 errors!! O.K. so you just used these two as examples to make your point.
Firstly, God did not WRITE the Bible; men did under the inspiration of God. So now, you need to understand what inspiration means. The THOUGHTS were given to men and the MEN wrote them as best as they could.
Secondly, what most people call the Bible is a TRANSLATION of the Bible. Most people cannot read ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and ancient Greek, the original languages in which the texts were written. If you speak more than one language, you will better be able to appreciate the difficulties in translating form one to another.
Thirdly, words very often change in meaning with the passage of time. 100 years ago, the primary meaning for "wine" is the unfermented grape juice. Since then, it only represent an alcoholic beverage with about 8-15% alcohol.
Then there is the problem with hermeneutics : the science of interpreting ancient texts. Within the context, what did the original mean? How is that applicable to us today?
Albert Barnes has this to say in his commentary :
"4. The character of the people of Nazareth was such that they were proverbially despised and contemned, Joh_1:46; Joh_7:52. To come from Nazareth, therefore, or to be a Nazarene, was the same as to be despised, or to be esteemed of low birth; to be a root out of dry ground, having no form or comeliness. This was what had been predicted by all the prophets. When Matthew says, therefore, that the prophecies were “fulfilled,” his meaning is, that the predictions of the prophets that he would be of a low and despised condition, and would be rejected, were fully accomplished in his being an inhabitant of Nazareth, and despised as such."
2006-09-29 20:53:25
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answer #2
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answered by flandargo 5
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Upon closer examination, however, it becomes evident that the passage does not say what the skeptic wants us to think it says. The “quote” actually was only the latter half of the verse. In the context (which begins earlier in verse 22), here is what the passage actually says:
But when he [Joseph—BT] heard that Archelaus was reigning over Judaea in the room of his father Herod, he was afraid to go thither; and being warned of God in a dream, he withdrew into the parts of Galilee, and came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth; that it might be fulfilled which was spoken through the prophets, for he should be called a Nazarene.
An examination of the actual facts that come to bear on this passage reveals the following information. It is true, as various Bible commentators have noted, that nowhere in the Old Testament did any of the prophets say: “He shall be called a Nazarene” . However, while at first glance the verse might be construed to suggest that some “prophets” (the plural in the Greek text is significant; see comments below) suggested that Christ “should be called a Nazarene,” further study shows that this is not the actual intent of the passage at all. In discussing the grammatical construction of the passage in the original Greek
First, it is important to note that alleged Bible discrepancies fall into various categories of difficulty, so far as ease of response is concerned. Certain charges against God’s Word are explained effortlessly. For example, one skeptic suggested that he had discovered a “contradiction” in the Bible. He noted that since Noah’s ark (described in Genesis 6) was 300 cubits long (about 450 feet) and would have weighed several tons when fully loaded, it was preposterous to believe that the priests could have carried it across the Jordan River as described in Joshua 3! The critic’s inability to distinguish between the ark of Noah and the ark of the covenant made answering his argument a simple matter for even the most elementary Bible student. However, not all alleged discrepancies are answered as easily. Some require extensive research to explain. Entire books have been written to discuss these so-called discrepancies It is a simple matter for the atheist, agnostic, freethinker, or skeptic to charge that God’s Word contains contradictions or discrepancies; it is
Second, on occasion it is the case that the charge being made against the Bible is itself seriously flawed. In other words, we need to be admonished never to react to a charge leveled against a certain passage of Scripture based on what the passage is “supposed” to say according to the Bible critic, or on what the Bible critic thinks it says.
The Word of GOD will always be discounted but never dispoven.
Be Blessed and Blessed Be
2006-09-29 20:22:30
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answer #3
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answered by Celestian Vega 6
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Judges13:5 "for the child shall be a Nazarite unto God"
Moses' sister put the basket IN THE REEDS along the banks of the Nile.
Pharaoh's daughter saw the basket AMONG THE REEDS and sent her servant to get the basket.
The Bible is flawless...you are mistaken. God bless you for trying. Keep on reading. The Bible was written by men who were inspired by God.
2006-09-29 20:11:53
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answer #4
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answered by moviesmiss1 3
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All of your perceived errors in the Bible are easily explained through translation, or transliteration issues. Technically, the Bible contains no errors in the origianl languages. The problems come in when some words are translated, and not others.
For Instance:
The names of cities are usually not changed from language to language.
As Messiah was to be a Nazarene (a man from Nazareth)
we should look at the language.
"Nazareth" in Hebrew means "Branch" in English.
Then, we find the following verse refering to King David and his family bloodline:
2006-09-29 20:35:01
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answer #5
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answered by Bob L 7
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God didn't write the bible. Man (i.e., MEN) did. When are you guys going to get hip to this? The books of the bible (some of which have been lost through time, and some of which remain locked in the Vatican) were written in ancient languages that nobody speaks now by men who had prejudices and agendas and all manner of human frailties. Those books that were deemed acceptable by church elders in the 5th and 6th centuries AD were compiled into one book, then translated by other men with other prejudices and agendas and human frailties. That one book was then translated and copied and translated and copied again and again into every language ever spoken by a population with Christians in it, and it all was done by human beings--mostly men, I'll wager.
The idea that the Bible contains the actual words of God and should be taken literally (in English) is not only stupid, it's insane, and it's pretty much single-handedly responsible for faith-based bloodshed and violence for the last 1,500 years.
So NO, God did not write the Bible. And yes, there are errors in translation, errors in historical fact, and probably thousands of grammatical errors and typos throughout time.
2006-09-29 20:17:54
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answer #6
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answered by Banba 3
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23 And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene.
This the verse you are referring to? What lie. Jesus was born in Bethlehem and grew up in Nazereth. Before he was crucified he was referred to as a Nazerene. If he would have stated to those people he was born in Bethlehem the outcome would have been different. They wanted proof! Jesus' followers had the proof in what the Messiah did and even at his death they knew. Everyone figured it out then.
2006-09-29 20:15:24
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answer #7
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answered by Baby girl 3
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There are no errors in the scriptures only the ones men think they have found. Psalms 12: 6 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Psalms 12: 7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever. The Bible is not hard to understand but hard to believe. There is one thing the Bible tells you is the fact that the Lord Jesus Christ died for your sins He was buried and took yout sins away and He rose again the third day for your justification. You need to believe that for there are no errors in that. 1 Corinthians 15: 3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; 1 Corinthians 15: 4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: Romans 4: 25 Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.
2006-09-29 20:19:29
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answer #8
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answered by Ray W 6
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There are errors because the bible was originally in Latin and then in Hebrew. People had to copy it and people make errors. Latin and Hebrew are more complex languages then English. Both of them have more words then English so there are words in Latin that we don't have so we had to use the closest thing to them.
May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and fellowship of the Holy spirit be with you all.
2 Corinthians 13:14
2006-09-29 20:14:01
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answer #9
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answered by I love Jesus! 3
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....So ALL of pharoahs army drowned in a sea of reeds?!!
wow, thats even more of a miracle!
TITUS 1:2 God cannot lie.
REVELATION 21:8 But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death.
-LIVE4TRUTH =]
2006-09-29 20:16:15
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answer #10
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answered by LIVE4TRUTH 3
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