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6 answers

NO

Simple present tense question.
the first question belongs to past time. After that time we have a period of time up to now.

The second question is present perfect tense.
The event continues up to now.

The spoken time is different for each question.

2006-09-29 02:44:06 · answer #1 · answered by iyiogrenci 6 · 0 0

It would be 'have you spoken?' but it still means two slightly different things. 'Did you speak?' indicates a single action completed in the past. 'Have you spoken?' indicates the past, but the action could possibly have been repeated.

2006-09-29 09:48:31 · answer #2 · answered by francesfarmer 3 · 0 0

No ,it is wrong 1st one is question sentence which is in simple past tense & second one is also quo but in present perfect tense but it also has error .I u have to convert in past perfect tense that will be"had u spoken".

2006-09-29 09:53:25 · answer #3 · answered by jaya 2 · 0 0

Did you speak and have you SPOKEN, two separate time frames, not interchangeable.

2006-09-29 09:48:26 · answer #4 · answered by mickeyg1958 4 · 0 0

non non non its wrong grammer
but but it depends what the whole sentence is

2006-09-29 09:46:16 · answer #5 · answered by ria 2 · 0 0

no

2006-10-03 04:17:29 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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