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9 answers

No, not at all. Churches are subject to the law just like other institutions and individuals.

2006-09-28 14:06:23 · answer #1 · answered by Coffeyvillian 3 · 0 0

The government has the responsibility of protecting all its citizens, including those who go to church! The government must hold the church accountable for obeying the laws of the country. But the government cannot tell people which church to attend, or even to attend church. (Individual people in government have the right of all citizens to express their religious or non religious opinion).
In the same way the church cannot govern the nation, but its spokesmen share the right of every citizen to express themselves on government issues.
For the sake of the church, however, it is not recommended that the church publicly take a stand in favour of a particular political party. But it is not against the law.

2006-09-28 22:11:13 · answer #2 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 0 0

some think the 'separation of church and state' is an establishment clause to the First Amendment
Which says, "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof;"
But, the Supreme Court decided that the Fourteenth Amendment, makes that Clause binding on state and local governments as well,The phrase "separation of church and state" does not appear in the Constitution, but comes from a letter written by Thomas Jefferson. In that letter,he says: "I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof.
That is the 'freedom of religon'
Only that the government can't tell us what church to go to or how to Worship.
So the Feds can't tell us and neither can the state or town.

2006-09-28 22:02:19 · answer #3 · answered by helpme1 5 · 0 0

No, it means that the government can not differentiate between religions, sects, or denominations, treating some better or worse than others. It does not mean that religous organizations or activity can not be regulated to some extent by law. A good example is in tax law. Any organization meeting the legal definition of a religious organization can gain tax-exempt status, no matter what their doctrinal differences may be. However, an organization that conducts itself in a manner that places it outside of the legal provisions may be rightfully denied tax-exempt status and required by law to pay taxes or face the same penalties as other delinquent taxpayers, even if its conduct is religiously motivated. All that the Constitutional separation of Church and State demands of the government is that it not choose favorites among religious viewpoints (including non-religiousness) or seem to promote one over another.

2006-09-28 22:32:09 · answer #4 · answered by BoredBookworm 5 · 0 0

I guess it could mean that, but I think the idea was to prevent the government from having religion influence its decisions. Since we all have freedom of speech and religion under the Constitution, I feel that the Church is adequately protected from government influence and therefore there should be no argument over whether the idea of separation of church and state applies both ways.

2006-09-28 21:33:38 · answer #5 · answered by lynxirza 2 · 0 0

I thought it was more that Church could not be involved in government. However not sure whether you are talking about UK or US. In UK some religious leaders have place in House of Lords and PM has a say in appointments of Church of England bishops. Churches are under the rule of law like everyone else as determined by parliament and interpreted by judges.

2006-09-28 21:08:11 · answer #6 · answered by Robert A 5 · 0 0

In the United States...., However, the federal courts give close scrutiny to any state or local laws that impinge upon the bona fide exercise of religious practices. The courts ensure that genuine and important religious rights are not impeded, and that questionable practices are limited only to the extent necessary. The courts usually demand that any laws restricting religious practices must demonstrate a fundamental or "compelling" state interest, such as protecting citizens from bodily harm.

2006-09-28 21:23:11 · answer #7 · answered by j b 1 · 0 0

that's right

2006-09-29 02:42:52 · answer #8 · answered by acid tongue 7 · 0 0

Nope it does not mean that.

2006-09-28 21:03:05 · answer #9 · answered by Venus__27 4 · 0 0

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