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8 answers

Short answer: what Washington spoke would doubtless have sounded more like English accents in certain parts of England in his day, because it had descended from them (in the previous century).


The answer to your question depends on what you have in mind by an "English accent". If you're thinking of something like the 20th century British "Received Pronunciation", the question is, did ANYONE in Washington's day speak that way?!

Start by noting two simple facts:

1) there never was ONE variety of English spoken in England. (In fact, England of the 17th century and of today has more dialects, with more variations, than ALL the dialects of ALL its former colonies!)

2) NO ONE --British or American-- speaks the same English as was spoken in the colonial period! BOTH have changed significantly (including what LATER became the "Received Pronounciation" based on a politically dominant London-area dialect)

So, whatever era you're looking at, comparing "American English" and "British English" is not a simple matter.


Now about the type of English spoken in the American colonies --

During the colonial period (1607-1775) there for FOUR main migrations of English speaking people to America from the British Isles. These resulted in four main dialect areas, each based on the dialect of the area of the British Isles from which most of its early settlers ("founders") came. In fact, many of the distinctive features of English in the different regions of the U.S. today can be traced to these.

Thus the English of the American colonists was based on VARIOUS dialects of 17th century BRITISH English. Of course, since they all spoke a LIVING language, BOTH Amerian dialects and British dialects continued to change. Already by the time of the American Revolution there were significant changes had taken place on BOTH sides of the Atlantic. Note that in some cases some British dialects might preserve older patterns (words, accent, etc) and the colonists might innovate; but in other instances older forms would be preserved in AMERICAN dialects, while the British innovated.

As for Washington --

One of these four migrations was that of the Cavaliers from South England (migrated in 1642-1675). This group eventually dominated the coastal region from Virginia to Florida. Their speech laid the foundation for the development of American Tidewater speech, or Coastal Southern English.

Since George Washingon would have been typical of the people who settled his region, he would have shared this Tidewater accent (in its 18th century form). It would have been something like the English dialect (and accent) of the area of Southern England from which his forebears came, but with some changes due to over a century since their separation.

summary of the linguistic features of the four regions
http://pandora.cii.wwu.edu/vajda/ling201/test3materials/AmericanDialects.htm

2006-09-29 01:38:43 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 5 0

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2016-12-23 04:12:34 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes. The British accent, in general, whether it was the aristocratic, cockney, or city British accent, was still very strong in America in the time of Washington. It may have been influenced by immigrants from other countries (Say if one lived in a city with a high population of French (ie, Louisiana.) speaking natives. etc) It could have also been influenced by the southern planters and the northern puritans. However, most of the people Washington hung around would have been from Great Britain or maintained an accent, just as an American from the North would have a Yankee accent from his or her parents speaking to them in the home.

2006-09-28 11:24:15 · answer #3 · answered by Sirius Black 5 · 1 1

truly, he had neither a British or a Southern accent. because the English that the Colonials spoke develop right into a lot diverse than the King's English (or present day American or British English), Colonists had their own accent on the time. It develop into considered rustic, and probably a touch backwards, through the British on the time (between the excuses they found Benjamin Franklin relaxing develop into because he had a Colonial accent). each and every Colony probable had their own particular accent because the inhabitants did not pick the flow between Colonies typically. in short, the accent G. Washington spoke with probable does no longer exist in the present day.

2016-12-06 08:19:05 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes, upperclass Americans at that time had a British accent. In fact the royals in Britain sound sort of like upper class Bostonians now.

2006-09-28 12:49:26 · answer #5 · answered by Martha G 5 · 3 2

yes, because his father was a brit

2006-09-28 11:20:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

probably not...

besides he was from westmoreland county va

2006-09-28 11:16:39 · answer #7 · answered by lethallolita 3 · 1 3

no

2006-09-28 11:15:31 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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