2006-09-28 07:39:14 · 9 answers · asked by bwilliams66 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
I think it has something to do with nobody getting to God the Father except through Jesus the Son.
2006-09-28 07:41:56 · answer #1 · answered by willow_raevynwood 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because the Lord's name is Jesus....
2006-09-28 14:46:43 · answer #2 · answered by Andy FF1,2,CrTr,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
We pray in Jesus' name to God.
Jesus is the Lord.
Jesus is our link/bridge to God.
God is holy and can have nothing to do with sin.
We are found clean and blameless only through Jesus who by dieing on the cross, washed us of our sin.
2006-09-28 14:52:21 · answer #3 · answered by HEATHER 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the basic idea is Jesus died for our sins, He was considered "our savior." A mediator between God and us, to use modern terms. So basically when we use that phrase, we're expressing our faith in Jesus as savior and Son of God whose promises allow us to communicate with God and gain his mercy. I hope I explained that alright.
2006-09-28 14:48:38 · answer #4 · answered by missa 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Protestants usually say that. I knew some "Holy Rollers" one time and they affixed it to everything they said.
They consider jesus their Lord. It has to do with the holy trinity. The father The son and the Holy Ghost, whoever that is.
2006-09-28 14:44:00 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
God said that we could not get to him, but through his son. So all prayers should have a mention of Jesus' name. This is true for all christianity.
2006-09-28 14:47:11 · answer #6 · answered by Me 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus is Lord!!!
2006-09-28 14:42:42 · answer #7 · answered by fijisun 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
John 14:13-14, “And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.”
2006-09-28 14:50:13 · answer #8 · answered by dbackbarb 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
they are one and the same
2006-09-28 14:46:50 · answer #9 · answered by kono5 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋