I understand there are some migrational ties and that French was the common language of the elite in the past. The civil code is used. Are these reasons the basis for its membership? Would this not apply to nearly all the nations of Europe?
2006-09-27 09:25:25 · 5 answers · asked by Steven 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Embassies & Consulates
Membership of the Francophonie is self-selected. Countries are free to join if they have any historical or present or perhaps imagined connection with the French language. It is not an exclusive club. Algeria, where French is widely spoken, did not join -- for political reasons -- and indeed postponed the start of the teaching of French in the schools beyond the age (10 or so) when children find languages easiest to learn. With the specific intention of relegating French to a minor cultural status in the country.
2006-09-27 20:10:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
French has historically been the second language of Rumania. IThat is now gradually disappearing, but that has not yet been officially acknowledged.)
2006-09-27 10:42:25 · answer #2 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
i've seen all that people gathered in our capital from such poor countries, i've seen on TV one of the participants scratching his a**. they all are better and more educated than romanian hah?
2006-09-29 20:47:51 · answer #3 · answered by **** if i know 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the same reason Argentina was part of the European Union until they were expelled...
they want to be.
2006-09-29 07:05:22 · answer #4 · answered by corpsnerd09 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
ROMANIA DOESNT DESERVE THAT, IT IS SUCH A BACKWARD AND POVERTY STRUCK NATION.
LOTS AND LOTS OF CORRUPTION TOO
2006-09-27 21:04:07 · answer #5 · answered by saahil 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋