Take these from Leviticus:
Lev 18:22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.
and
Lev 20:18 And if a man shall lie with a woman having her sickness [...] and she hath uncovered the fountain of her blood: both of them shall be cut off from among their people.
In other words, men shouldn't have sex with each other (says nothing about lesbians), and couples should not have sex while the woman is menstruating.
I understand Christ "fulfilled" much of the OT and wonder how we choose among what's left. These injunctions both concern private matters between consenting adults. Shouldn't Christians be as ferocious about couples having sex during menstruation as they are about homosexuality? Have any Christians committed this SIN? Why is one ignored and the other not? Can you explain why Y!A is not filled with Christians castigating heterosexuals who have sex during a period? Why do no preachers speak out against it? We never seem to hear about it.
2006-09-27 03:31:45 · 11 answers · asked by Bad Liberal 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Boardrunner, that's the funniest thing yet. It's about numbers, is it? Well I borrow from an excellent answer to one of my other questions: "The Bible contains six admonishments to homosexuals and 362 admonishments to heterosexuals". We'd better watch our toes.
And your argument seems to be, homosexuality is worse than sex during menses BECAUSE preachers speak out about it more. Are you aware of the concept of a circular argument?
2006-09-27 03:56:22 · update #1
"Shouldn't Christians be as ferocious about couples having sex during menstruation as they are about homosexuality?"
Religious Jews and religious Muslims conform to this practice and do not have sex with their partners when they are on their period. So your point is well taken.
My only problem with this practice is the idea that a woman is "unclean" during menses. Given that this is a normal and natural part of a woman's life while she is fertile, and given that it is necessary for the procreation of the species, how can it be considered unclean? Is it not, in fact, another means to subjugate women as a gender group?
I believe our ancestors were fully aware of the fact that while a woman is having menses she is unable to conceive. Therefore engaging in sex during this part of her cycle would mean that you were having sex for the pure enjoyment of it rather than for the more serious act of reproduction.
What? Fun?! No monotheistic, patriarchal religion designed to control the masses through guilt and shame would ever allow such a thing!
2006-09-27 03:44:22 · answer #1 · answered by gjstoryteller 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It is interesting they will claim the new covenant makes most of the laws in Leviticus null, but hold on tight to the verses condemning homosexuality with both hands.
In doing so they also ignore this:
Matthew 5:17-19
"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
2006-09-27 04:04:57 · answer #2 · answered by February Rain 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is written that it is an abomination to God for men to have sex with men more than one time in the bible. The one about ministration is not, as far as I know, in the bible but in this one passage. In fact, i was not really aware of it until now. I would state to the questioner that if sex even with menstruation was being pressed on the public with the same urgency and force as the homosexual lifestyle that he would hear the preachers speak out against it. The issue of the homosexual lifestyle is of much more importance to our moral values than the one of sex during menstruation.
2006-09-27 03:50:49 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Lesbians are believeied to be covered by Paul in the Book of Romans if you're interested
1:24 Therefore God also gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to uncleanness, that their bodies should be dishonored among themselves, 25 who exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed forever. Amen. 26 For this reason, God gave them up to vile passions. For their women changed the natural function into that which is against nature. 27 Likewise also the men, leaving the natural function of the woman, burned in their lust toward one another, men doing what is inappropriate with men, and receiving in themselves the due penalty of their error..
Since the context for verse 26 is given at the start of 27 with "likewise" before dealing with men lusting after men, we assume the sin of the women in the previous passage was also homosexuality.
As for the rest, you surely realize the Bible is a Smorgasboard?
2006-09-27 03:41:33 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Why do you take out one passage completely out of context? It's ridiculous but people keep doing it. It's not rocket science to see that some of the stuff in the OT was applicable to the culture at that time.
But the simple principle behind it - sex is precious and was designed for within marriage between a man and a woman, still stands.
So do your research more thoroughly and stop quoting sensational bits and distorting the facts.
2006-09-27 03:36:36 · answer #5 · answered by retro_girl34 2 · 2⤊ 2⤋
If you read more of Leviticus, since you need to read most of whats around the versus to get its true context, you will see that when a woman was menstuating, she was considered unclean and had to leave the camp and go into the wilderness so not to get anyone else unclean. In the NT, the woman who was menstruating for I believe 12 years, touched his robe, becuase she had faith that if she touched him she would be healed. Jesus turned around and told her she was healed by faith (or something along those lines). Jesus showed us that love overrules uncleanliness, becuase he approached her with love, and didnt yell at her or curse her even though she was considered "unclean".
2006-09-27 03:36:10 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
There's a website called themarriagebed.com that will better answer your questions, but to my understanding, it's not necessary to follow the old testament anymore.
2006-09-27 03:34:26 · answer #7 · answered by dorky_goddess 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
i would never have sex with a woman if she was mensruating, because i wouldnt want to be covered with blood, and ive never had sex with another man though it may be fun, i dont know.
2006-09-27 03:34:58 · answer #8 · answered by arcane 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Yeah, it says it in rather plain terms.
2006-09-27 04:00:43 · answer #9 · answered by bigvol662004 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Lesbians are alright.
2006-09-27 03:34:29 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋