References: Matthew 16:19's "ye" and Matthew 18:18's "thou".
Plausible Problem: "ye"("do err", "greatly", and "alway") and "thou"("vain man", wilt oft not know what they do and what they say is what brings destruction on them, and due to willing ignorance); Neither "ye"(of ye/you) nor "thou"(of thou/thee) "know" what to bind(law worketh wrath) nor what to loose(grace is sufficient) on earth to have all comfort instead of comfort(grace) & dis-comfort(law) in heaven; Not until "ye"(do err) "know the truth" is no lie at all, nor until thou wilt know it's by thy words thou art condemned(lawed). Thereby knowing, "ye" becomes "you"(made perfect), and "thou"(vain man) wilt know "grace is sufficient" for "thee"(not thou).
Does nobody else on earth get the "allegory"-ic more-all of "chanGe" in biblical verses, from ye to you, thou to thee, them to us?
What sort of "heaven" allows unlearned do greatly & alway err to add-versely affect & effect all therein with earthy devilish law law?
2006-09-26 02:45:06 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
"ye" shall know the truth... shall make "you" free; MAKE You(of ye/you): Free(of bond/free): Free of believing grace + law is from "the God of all grace": Free of believing truth + lie is of "God(Grace) cannot lie(law)", therefore and thereby God(Grace) cannot die(law), nor can God(Grace) even be tempted(lawed).
2006-09-26 04:26:28 · update #1
I need a translation
2006-09-26 02:47:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
This is not a new concept, nor one exclusive to Christianity. The idea of 'as above so below' was first put forth by the ancient Egyptians.
Otherwise, 'ye' and 'thou' are the same word. One is a pronoun and the other a verb, one is singular and the other objective (both respectively).
2006-09-26 02:49:40 · answer #2 · answered by Yngona D 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God gave the Apostles the authority to bind anything on earth & to loose anything on earth, In other words God had enough trust in those men that he could give that authoity to these men & the same today, TRUE man of God, he can give that same authority. In either case, God did not give them the authoriy to forgive sins, only to wash away sins done in the body By water Baptism.
2006-09-26 03:04:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
42
2006-09-26 02:47:27 · answer #4 · answered by lenny 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i'm uncertain I fairly comprehend your question, yet what you're quoting from is Matt sixteen: 19, whilst Christ gave authority to Peter because of the fact the 1st pope, the 1st chief of His Church. And so it extremely is with the earthly leaders (Christ is the suitable and Heavenly chief of the church) that *they* have the authority to assert what's permitted and not allowed. If the pope says abortion is erroneous (sure) on earth then it extremely is erroneous (sure) in heaven besides.
2016-10-01 09:21:51 · answer #5 · answered by elidia 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's the bad thing about Bible verse. i presume that whatever you just send was probably very deep and had a interesting point but i didn't understand a single word of it. I wish i did though.
2006-09-26 02:50:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The only problem is in the translation. Search, ponder and pray. That's the only way to really understand.
2006-09-26 02:52:24 · answer #7 · answered by Nora Explora 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is no problem on it. It all depends on your own understanding of the passage.
2006-09-26 03:06:16 · answer #8 · answered by ladyvickolay 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what didnt even read !
2006-09-26 02:48:07 · answer #9 · answered by wise 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋