European history, Renaissance
2006-09-25 22:45:15 · 4 answers · asked by juyonee 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
It was describe in these terms in my history class. Common laws was more of a local issue. Since the King 'was chosen' by god, through a "Coronation" he in fact was above man's laws. The key is going through the coronatin process, it was god's stamp approval. Additonally, many Monarchs simply had those around him/her killed if they didn't follow the king's laws!
2006-09-26 02:03:34 · answer #1 · answered by Adam 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Usually properly adopted legislation will overrule common [judge made] law. I cannot agree that common law is necessarily an "obstacle." but, sometimes a decision relying on a ruling in a particular case really didn't make much sense overall.
Lawyers have a cliche: "Some cases make bad law."
By allowing the creation of parliaments and letting those legislative bodies do their job, the various legislations brought some order into society.
2006-09-26 08:26:06 · answer #2 · answered by John the Revelator 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The original common law, feudal law, was got rid of by adopting Roman law either overtly or in the guise of the law of nature/the law of reason. Classical Roman law is essentially republican (with a small 'r') and suited emerging democracies/the increasingly wealthy middle classes quite nicely. That gave rise itself to a certain amount of 'common law' and when that got in the way, especially in the twentieth century, as social democracy emerged to replace liberal democracy, legislation was used to 'modify' (override) common law.
2006-09-26 14:41:02 · answer #3 · answered by waree 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Not really, there' s still the lower class and upper class and people fighting like there's no tomorrow.
2006-09-26 07:20:29 · answer #4 · answered by tick tock goes the clock 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋