Is the question "Mr.X is come?" gramatically correct, or should that be "Mr.X has come?"?

Answer 1

has

Answer 2

The verb form you are after is the "perfect".

Nowadays you would say "has come"

But at one time "is come" would have been preferred. You'll find it in Shakespeare. In fact, you'll still find the form in 19th century English (as in the novels of Jane Austen or Charlotte Bronte).

This form, which emphasizes the RESULT of some prior action, is now considered archaic, at least for the most part. So, if you find it in literature or certain religious uses (see below) it is not wrong. But you wouldn't want to use it in ordinary speech yourself.

http://www.randomhouse.com/wotd/index.pperl?date=20010912

The older form is, however, preserved in certain expressions, esp. in religious use. The King James Bible used forms like "is come", you'll hear it in Watts's 18th century hymn "Joy to the world! The Lord IS come!" And above all in the Easter exclamation "Christ is risen!"

(This last is the best example of how the 'resultative' perfect works. First one says, "Christ HAS died" referring to a past event. This is followed by "Christ IS risen!" The point is not simply that he rose at some point in the past, but that, as a result, he is NOW alive. Likewise "He is come!" was used to emphasize that, as a result of his coming he is NOW here.)

Answer 3

If Mr. X has arrived, then it's Mr. X has come.

If Mr. X is still on his way it's: Mr. X is coming

Answer 4

gramatically, it would prefer to "Mr. X has come"
or usually we use " Mr. X came"

Answer 5

Mr.X has come

Answer 6

Either:
"Mr. X has come," or
"Mr. X came.

Answer 7

"Mr. X has come" is right.

Answer 8

It should be "has come."