2006-09-25 18:27:25 · 13 answers · asked by tentoeights 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Yes, if the 0.999999999999999999 is "repetend" or continuing forever. Here's the math proof:
Let x = 0.9999999999999 (repetend)
10x = 9.99999999999999 (repetend)
10x - x = 9x = 9 (the .99999 parts just subtract out)
Divide both side by 9 and you have x = 1
But we started with x = 0.99999999 (repetend), thus they are the same.
2006-09-25 19:00:24 · answer #1 · answered by heb3 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes.
another example: 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + ......=2
not almost 2 or close to 2. I know it's a little counterintuituve, but it's the truth. It isn't a philosophical question, it's a math question.
2006-09-26 01:38:10 · answer #2 · answered by banjuja58 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is the mathematical answer that in the limit they are the same.
The non-mathematical answer is that a mind with limited perception cannot distinguish the difference. If they cannot be perceived as different, then they are the same. Only a mind with infinite perception can know they are not the same.
We mortals must yield to sameness.
2006-09-26 01:44:56 · answer #3 · answered by t_e_sumner 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Even though their mathematical value is the same, the two are obviously different, are they not ? They are as much the same as two persons weighing 100 Kgs each.
2006-09-26 01:40:02 · answer #4 · answered by small 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
that is why we have different representations for the two distinct numbers...
they are offten called the same for the purpose to confuse less but .999999 will NEVER be 1... close doesnt cut it in Math
2006-09-26 01:37:25 · answer #5 · answered by masterdj2006 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no
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.99 is an infinetisimally smaller ammount than 1. They may round to the same thing, but they are not.
2006-09-26 01:30:49 · answer #6 · answered by Startoshadows 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no. but for convinence sake u can take it as one. Depending upon the required accuracy u can limit ur decimal.
2006-09-26 01:36:49 · answer #7 · answered by V R G 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
difinitely not.....although when 0.9...is rounded off, it's equal to one but that's just the nearest number.....therefore, they're of two different values....
2006-09-26 03:25:38 · answer #8 · answered by Marijuana 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, but if you round 0.999999.... to the nearest whole number, then it would be 1... and therefore... 1
2006-09-26 01:38:53 · answer #9 · answered by christy 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yep
2006-09-26 01:31:57 · answer #10 · answered by larry n 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋