Because Brazil was settled by Portugal, not Spain.
2006-09-25 14:15:12
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answer #1
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answered by cedar 3
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It was because in 1494 the pope to end a dispute between portugal and spain, drew a line in the middle of the american continent, and declared that everything west of that line was spain and towards the east was portugal. This was called Treaty of Tordesillas..later on the portuguese having no objection from the spanish side crossed the line more towards the west for reasons of exploitation of land and raw materials...and ever since that area now called Brasil was colonized by the portuguese.
2006-09-26 01:01:15
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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At the time the line was drawn neither party were aware that South America had the bulge that id Brazil. Portugal was not intended to have any of South America. However, as the line was drawn they had a rightful claim so got it.
2006-09-26 02:14:51
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answer #3
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answered by iansand 7
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Because Brazil was conquered by the Portuguese, not by Spain.
http://www.iht.com/articles/2005/08/28/news/brazil.php
2006-09-25 22:32:05
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answer #4
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answered by pelancha 6
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Brazil is not the only country in South America that does not speak Spanish.
Brazil was a colony of Porugal and speaks Portugese
Surinam was a Dutch colony and speaks Dutch
Guyana was an English colony and speaks English
French Guiana is still a French colony and speaks French (AND uses the Euro as its currency)
2006-09-25 21:23:03
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answer #5
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answered by F. Frederick Skitty 7
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Yep... Blame the Pope! Actually, the Portuguese and Spanish were already there... He just resolved the dispute as to where one country's territory began and the other ended.
2006-09-27 23:28:30
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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They were originally a Portugese colony -- founded in the late 1500s I believe.
At one time Portugal was one of the world naval powers along with England and Spain.
A good source of info about countries is the CIA World Fact Book. It is a free publicly acessible site about countries.
Link to info on Brazil: http://sportsforum.ws/sd/factbook/geos/br.html
2006-09-25 21:19:07
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answer #7
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answered by John S 7
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It was colonized by the Portuguese, not the Spanish
2006-09-25 21:18:29
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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All the answers you need for this question are in the link below. It's all due to a treaty signed in 1494 between Portugal and Spain.
2006-09-25 22:08:35
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Because Brazil was colonized by Portugal.
2006-09-25 21:18:55
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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