2006-09-25 13:51:30 · 3 answers · asked by ashley t 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Primary & Secondary Education
In the old days, when 1 was considered prime by some people, the answer would be a 400-digit prime multiplied by 1. Now, this question is not valid.
2006-09-28 07:00:12 · answer #1 · answered by giftlite 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, first of all if the answer is prime, then the two numbers will be your 400 digit prime and the number 1. The web site below has more than any of us really wanted to know about primes. It even lists 1,000,000 digit primes. It even takes into account American and British numbering systems.
The second site (alperton) lists a 400 digit prime number. I just copied and pasted, I did not count or figure this out for myself.
3974602370533485681014144565350818807326301148173048126966221182886378065861229010168735817245761305486790392963227046216487924874214582612356582289830032208478588695924632669062790352896162777942439643491779531866868540351903064575384238649215559076369553376969898765127385718011785422365635660707692383571459865972652107839017730016581797169167034880152278297771317738806828856468200683593750000001
There was a 1. in front of the number. I assumed that it was the number of the answer rather than part of the answer, but you know what they say about people who assume. I could be wrong. My preview is not showing all of the numbers, so you may need to go to the website. Good luck!
2006-09-25 14:07:50 · answer #2 · answered by bizime 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you could multiply two numbers together to get it, it wouldn't be a prime number.
2006-09-25 13:59:16 · answer #3 · answered by banjuja58 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋