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2006-09-24 12:50:32 · 13 answers · asked by curious 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

Yes. Islam asked his followers to call Jesus the slave of God instead of son of God.

2006-09-27 02:47:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

Slavery in Islam was originally prescribed because of Kufr. If there is jihaad between the Muslims and the kuffaar, and a number of kuffaar are taken prisoner, the commander is given the choice of sharing them out, doing them a favour (by releasing them) or paying their ransom. If they are shared out as part of the booty, they become slaves, subject to the laws governing products which may be sold. But at the same time, Islam urges the freeing of slaves and makes doing so an act of expiation for numerous sins. In principle, slavery is not something that is desirable; what is encouraged in Islam is the freeing of slaves.

Aslo I could not find the fatwa, but slaves are not to be treated bad. They are not to be beaten or over worked. They are to eat like you eat and be clothed like you are clothed.

2006-09-26 01:42:55 · answer #2 · answered by Umm Ali 6 · 0 1

This was true both for the Islamic slave trade and the European trade. So, Britannica:

"Slaves have been owned in black Africa throughout recorded history. In many areas there were large-scale slave societies, while in others there were slave-owning societies. Slavery was practiced everywhere even before the rise of Islam, and black slaves exported from Africa were widely traded throughout the Islamic world. Approximately 18,000,000 Africans were delivered into the Islamic trans-Saharan and Indian Ocean slave trades between 650 and 1905. In the second half of the 15th century Europeans began to trade along the west coast of Africa, and by 1867 between 7,000,000 and 10,000,000 Africans had been shipped as slaves to the New World.... The relationship between African and New World slavery was highly complementary. African slave owners demanded primarily women and children for labour and lineage incorporation and tended to kill males because they were troublesome and likely to flee. The transatlantic trade, on the other hand, demanded primarily adult males for labour and thus saved from certain death many adult males who otherwise would have been slaughtered outright by their African captors."

2006-09-24 13:02:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

traditionally, the significant juristic colleges of Islam traditionally common the corporate of slavery. Muhammad and a lot of his companions offered, offered, freed, and captured slaves. Slaves benefited from Islamic dispensations which more advantageous their situation relative to that in pre-Islamic society. on the authentic of the nineteenth century, a shift in Muslim theory and interpretation of the Qur'an surpassed off, and slavery grew to change into seen as adversarial to Islamic ideas of justice and equality. This interpretation has no longer been common through the Wahhabis of Saudi Arabia.[

2016-10-16 02:08:10 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

It permits and condones it in the same way that Christianity does. The texts technically say they can, but it has passed out of practice and is now viewed as immoral.

2006-09-24 12:53:10 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The Quran was revealed at a time when the Arabs kept slaves and the Quran recommends the freeing of slaves or the marrying of believing slaves and does not permit or condone slavery.

Quran was revealed at a time when the Arabs buried their girl-children alive and it does not permit or condone the burying of girl children alive.

2006-09-24 13:01:57 · answer #6 · answered by mythkiller-zuba 6 · 0 1

The Old and New Testaments and even the Quran allowed the existence of slaves but these books also forbade the mistreatment of slaves.

Unfortunately, regardless of the religion, slaves are mistreated and made to feel less then human by their masters. Therefore, it isn't the teachings of these books that are at fault but the people who profess in belief of these religions.

2006-09-24 12:58:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, Islam encourage the freeing of slaves around 600 AD. Everyone during that time had slaves and when the idea of 'everyones equal' came out, it was hard to accept and was against the arab way of life so ofcourse slaves werent freed all at once. The Prophet Muhammad peace be on him then said to atleast treat them well and not like a slave. He freed his slaves and bought other peoples slaves just to free them.
Remember though, this was 600 AD. we americans did not free our slaves thousands of years later.
peace

2006-09-24 12:57:47 · answer #8 · answered by dreams 3 · 1 1

mydreams's answer is right plus Islam made freeing slaves a good work to take reward from God and also made it as a penance for many sins:

It is not for a believer to kill a believer unless (it be) by mistake. He who hath killed a believer by mistake must set free a believing slave, and pay the blood-money to the family of the slain, unless they remit it as a charity. If he (the victim) be of a people hostile unto you, and he is a believer, then (the penance is) to set free a believing slave. And if he cometh of a folk between whom and you there is a covenant, then the blood-money must be paid unto his folk and (also) a believing slave must be set free. And whoso hath not the wherewithal must fast two consecutive months. A penance from Allah. Allah is Knower, Wise. "Qur'an 4, 92"

Allah will not take you to task for that which is unintentional in your oaths, but He will take you to task for the oaths which ye swear in earnest. The expiation thereof is the feeding of ten of the needy with the average of that wherewith ye feed your own folk, or the clothing of them, or the liberation of a slave, and for him who findeth not (the wherewithal to do so) then a three days' fast. This is the expiation of your oaths when ye have sworn; and keep your oaths. Thus Allah expoundeth unto you His revelations in order that ye may give thanks. "Qur'an 5, 89"

Those who put away their wives (by saying they are as their mothers) and afterward would go back on that which they have said, (the penalty) in that case (is) the freeing of a slave before they touch one another. Unto this ye are exhorted; and Allah is Informed of what ye do. "Qur'an 58, 3"

And in Islam the indicator for being good in God's eyes is as this verse:
O mankind! Lo! We have created you male and female, and have made you nations and tribes that ye may know one another. Lo! the noblest of you, in the sight of Allah, is the best in conduct. Lo! Allah is Knower, Aware. "Qur'an 49, 13"

2006-09-24 13:06:05 · answer #9 · answered by mido 4 · 1 1

yes, they can use infidels anyway they want they are like sub human. They have sex slaves and young men to make sucide bombers and they can have extra wives as slaves or concubines.
Women are definitely slaves and so are infidels or ones not born into the Islamic faith. Any people that they take over and subjagate. Like in Africa. They are slaves to them.

2006-09-24 12:53:56 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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