If there was a Jesus he loved everyone.Blind hate and obedience is so much easier then thinking..
2006-09-24 08:03:01
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answer #1
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answered by eva b 5
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Well the Bible tells us that the centurion had faith that Jesus could heal his servant from a distance. Jesus met people where they were and where they should be. It has nothing to do with blind hate or of learning the 'facts' of Roman society, but having an understanding of the Truth.
2006-09-24 15:05:27
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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I read that the servant was healed because of the humble centurion's attitude and his faith. Of course homosexuality was rampant in Roman society, much like in America today. And, like the Romans we will also fall from within due to our immorality.
Your opinion of the sexual orientation of the centurion is just that, your opinion. It cannot be proven. Judging from Jesus' admonition against sexual sins like adultery (MATT 5:27-28, 19:9) and his endorsement of marriage between one man and one woman (MATT 19:4-6) I would have to assume that the centurion was straight and most likely married. Secondly, even if he was a homosexual how does that invalidate Christian teaching that homosexuality is a sin? Jesus healed him, He didn't say he was going to Heaven.
2006-09-24 15:17:41
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answer #3
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answered by Cybeq 5
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Firstly, you're seeing the relationship between the centurion and the servant through a carnal lens. Two men can love each other without being gay. Jesus loved his disciples to the point that he allowed one to lean upon him to rest his head.
Second, Jesus didn't shun a person because of his sin. We see many instances in the Bible in which, after healing a person, Jesus tells the person "Go thy way, and sin no more." Jesus healed sinners, too. After healing sinners, Jesus would tell them not to sin any more. Did Jesus say this to the centurion? No. Therefore, one can conclude that the centurion was not gay. If he were, Jesus would know, and, as he tells the other sinners, Jesus would tell him not to sin any more.
2006-09-24 15:15:33
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answer #4
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answered by l;wksjf;aslkd 3
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You are reading things into the text that are not there, my friend. This was not a common Centurion, to begin with, he was a "proselyte"...this being so, it is quite likely that, in keeping with his new Jewish lifestyle, he would not be involved in homosexuality to begin with, since, as we all know, homosexuality was clearly condemned by God. We know that he loved the Temple and had given much of his own money to it.
Besides, it clearly says in the text that the man loves his servant as his son. I have sons, I love them very much, and I would go to great lengths to see them healed...that doesn't mean I'm having sex with them.
Love does not automatically involve sex, don't be such a pervert!
2006-09-24 15:20:39
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Where did you get that idea? Just because there was a lot of homosexuality doesn't mean that was how he was referring to this servant. You could love someone who was like a father to you. If the guy was a homosexual perhaps Jesus healed him of that too. Jesus healed whom he wanted and we all fall short of the glory of God so how is a sexual problem any more of a sin than other sins?
2006-09-24 15:14:21
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answer #6
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answered by Godb4me 5
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Give us a scripture to go by, let me read it, and see what your talking about.Rom,1:24-27 Unnatural passion and desire....1st cor 6:9-10 Homosexual activity condemned.Rev,17:5 Mother of perversion.... Ok I read Matt, chapter 8 verse 5, didn`t say he was homosexual, it said he was a servent of his, and he was sick, but the centurian told Jesus to say the word and his servent would be healed, because the centurian said he wasen`t worthy for Jesus to come to his home, because he had men under him,that he told what to do like soldiers, and Jesus told him he had great faith, and the servent was healed that same hour. Not a thing about being GAY.
2006-09-24 15:00:48
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answer #7
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answered by theladylooking 4
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I don't understand the question? Why would Jesus not heal a homosexual? Why do you assume that anyone ignores anything simply because Jesus may have healed a homosexual? What does that have to do with the price of tea in China?
2006-09-24 15:00:58
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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the Centurion had a son in John
possobly another Centurian had a servant in Matthew
it never mentioned lover... are you possibly reading that into the text? there are many types of love and sexual love would not be philio or agape it would be eros if that were so
but frankly... why would Jesus not help a desperate perosn who came to him in faith regarless. He loves us enough to take us as we are. He loves us too much to leave us as we are... but I think you wrong about the word love and its usage here
2006-09-24 15:03:35
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answer #9
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answered by whirlingmerc 6
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Why do homosexuals and lesbians always equate love with sex? Don't they know that real genuine love has nothing to do with sex? Interpreting scripture in this perverted way is totally out of context. If you plant to quote scripture, the least you could do is study it first and find out what it really says.
2006-09-24 15:03:26
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answer #10
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answered by rejoiceinthelord 5
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