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Alright, look at this chapter of the bible, Deuteronomy Ch. 13:

6: If thy brother, the son of thy mother, or thy son, or thy daughter, or the wife of thy bosom, or thy friend, which is as thine own soul, entice thee secretly, saying, Let us go and serve other gods, which thou hast not known, thou, nor thy fathers;
7: Namely, of the gods of the people which are round about you, nigh unto thee, or far off from thee, from the one end of the earth even unto the other end of the earth;
8: Thou shalt not consent unto him, nor hearken unto him; neither shall thine eye pity him, neither shalt thou spare, neither shalt thou conceal him:
9: But thou shalt surely kill him; thine hand shall be first upon him to put him to death, and afterwards the hand of all the people.
10: And thou shalt stone him with stones, that he die; because he hath sought to thrust thee away from the LORD thy God, which brought thee out of the land of Egypt, from the house of bondage.

2006-09-23 18:23:29 · 10 answers · asked by doogsdc 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Every Christian I have polled agrees that this chapter of Deuteronomy is not something to be taken literally now. Jesus and the New Testament invalidates Deuteronomy, apparently. Where does it say so? And if Deuteronomy is invalidated, why isn't the WHOLE Old Testament invalidated? Why include the Old Testament in the Bible at all? How does one go about choosing the parts that we should interpret literally from those we should not?

2006-09-23 18:25:49 · update #1

10 answers

The people in the OT were so horrible and sinful, they needed all those laws to be clean. Here's where it states that the OT is no longer applicable in NT:

http://biblebrowser.com/luke/24-44.htm
http://biblebrowser.com/matthew/5-17.htm
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark%2010:17-10:22&version=9
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew%2019:16-19:22&version=9

Romans 6:14 (we are not under the law, but under grace. OT =Law)
Romans 10:4 (Christ is the end of the law. Once again, OT = law)

Then onto 2 Timothy 3:16-17 All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.

The OT is good for teaching and learning. Not really for discipling, since the Jesus ended the law years.

2006-09-23 19:21:30 · answer #1 · answered by PeppermintandPopcorn 3 · 1 1

When reading scripture one must understand the context. some Parts of the context are subject, also to whom the author is writting which dispensation it is written, the language it is written in, be it hebrew aramaic or greek, and many less obvious things within the text itself too numerous to cover here. The obvious one here is that the recipient for whom the text is intended is the jewish nation, time, again obvious during the period under the law.

If you are jewish then go see your rabbi and ask him these silly questions if this is something you are asking Christians and you are a christian and a Gentile then your answer is in the 10th chapter of Acts. Check also rules set out by Jesus for guidance but this scripture while written to people in a frontier area still has some ideas of value, but the instruction to kill does not apply as is covered in that reference.
What I think is that you are using scripture in a way it was not intended for amoral purposes and be warned God will make you wish you had not done that, and when it happens remember you heard it right here.

it occurs to me you might think this prophet written of here was Jesus or Mohamed but the Text clearly states that this would be a prophet of an unknown God and neither of those two fits the Text as they are both messingers at a bare minimum for the God of Abraham.
You are indeed a silly person

2006-09-23 18:43:06 · answer #2 · answered by icheeknows 5 · 0 0

The New Testament and the Old Testament are like hand and glove, they fit perfectly together.

Keep in mind, at that time, the law of the land was a theocracy. We don't kill people for adultery, homosexuality, or worship other gods, etc.

Keep in mind that the New Testament was based on the Old Testament.

2006-09-23 18:29:14 · answer #3 · answered by Exodus 20:1-17 6 · 1 0

nowhere the one is hebrew scriptures before christ the other is greek scriptures during and after christ.
Deutronomy is still valid and if you pick and choose the bible then you forget God's inspired word. Note the very first word at the start of 2 Timothy 3:16 "All"

2 Timothy 3:16-17 All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.

2006-09-23 18:25:50 · answer #4 · answered by Gingerbread Man 3 · 2 0

The OT God was Israelites tribal deity and he serves his tribe pretty well even today.Jesus was also from the same tribe. By his time world had seen Buddha in India about 600BC, Aristotle Plato In greek, Zorastra In Persia. different trade routes helped mix all ideas.Paul did a wonderful job of putting forth convincing arguments. Lots of discussions went on in the first two centuries. Some ideas were thrown out . By 400AD Roman system was ready to lay the foundation for a new system of faith. 600AD Mohammed came along. He also had to help his people and got his godly revealation . that is also serving them well.

It is only the christs followers who are stuck in the middle. as Jesus's father Is Yaweh .and once they believe in Jesus they become Abrahams descendants and inherit all that father promised his chosen children

Until this father son relationship is figured out OT and NT validation is difficult

2006-09-23 18:44:40 · answer #5 · answered by Raja S 1 · 0 2

It doesn't Jesus said He came not to change the law but to fulfill it.

2006-09-23 19:16:46 · answer #6 · answered by kraziemann1 2 · 2 0

The Old Testament has never been a part of Christianity. Christianity DID NOT grow out of Judaism, it merely tried to syncretize with it, and did a rather poor job in the process.

2006-09-23 18:27:23 · answer #7 · answered by lenny 7 · 1 5

No where asJeus came to fullil the Old TESTAMENTS.

2006-09-23 18:29:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

doogsdc,

Romans 3 for ye.

2006-09-23 18:27:35 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

EPH. 2;15

JESUS CHRIST "COMBINED" THE OLD LAW & NEW LAW "TOGETHER. AND MADE "ONE".

.

2006-09-23 18:46:52 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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