Can someone cite where the Bible has been "changed" over the years.?

Question

I've seen this claim, but not the citations. Anyone?

Answer 1

yes, the "prostitute who is about to be stoned" story is NOT in the earliest texts (the one where jesus says "let he who is without sin cast the first stone")

also, the last chapter of mark was changed (added to) verses 16 thru 20

also lots of phrases ... like "i am the alpha and omega" is not in th earliest texts

also, "the holy ghost" was added in one place ....where jesus says "the father and the son" ...someone added "and the holy ghost" ...its not in the earliest texts

there are more

Answer 2

Any time you translate from one language to another, the meaning changes.

For a specific, the King James version of the Bible is called that because King James was breaking from the Holy Catholic Church (over divorce, mostly), and it pretty much says what King James wanted it to say (hence the name).

The very fact that we have "versions" of the Bible should tell you that there are changes. Otherwise they would all say the exact same thing......

Answer 3

Can you prove it hasn't? Can you read Assyrian? Greek? And everybody knows the screwed up history of the Roman Catholic Church and it was that very church that was responsible for the translations. Remember, protestants didn't come into existence until Martin Luther split off. Up to that point, everybody that was Christian was either Greek Orthodox or Catholic. Have you ever seen the original text? Who has it? The pope.

Answer 4

Go to any Bible site and you'll have twenty different versions to choose from.

The Bible wasn't canonized until centuries after the death of Christ. Books were added and deleted, and text is still being reinterpreted. Every time you translate it, you risk changing the meaning.

Answer 5

Original King James quote of John 3 : 16....For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son , that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish , but have everlasting life .................................The NIV John 3 :16.....For God so loved the world that He gave is one and only Son , that whoever believes in Him shall not perish , but have eternal life....................This change is in the same language , not as a change from one language to another. This is not a mistake made by translating from one language to another , this is a change done for convenience , and done intentionally..

Answer 6

"Thou shall not suffer a witch to live" is not in any previous versions to the King James version.The original word was "poisoner", not witch.However, it was the 1600's when the King James version was translated, and James was very into the Inquisition,which was at it's peak during that time.So that verse was changed, and even more people died, on the grounds of that verse.

Answer 7

Translations are never perfect and even simple translations in everyday life today can be easily butchered. Especially expressions (like "easily butchered") that do not cross cultures and languages well. And when something is taken from one language and translated into another, and from that one translated into another, then another, and so on... it is not possible to keep everything the same.

Answer 8

Do you honestly think that when the bible was transalted from Greek to English that it was a one-for-one translation? Liberties had to be taken and that means that the bible was changed.

Answer 9

Biblical scholars would know of the 5% margin of error BUT KING JAMES is 95% accurate...

Answer 10

It used to be in Latin