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2006-09-22 13:57:51 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

There is no evidence at all that she was. This is a mistake too many make because of a referece to another women ina preceding passage.

but also God did forgive all sort of people who followed him, so why not if she was. But there is no proof at all in the bible or anywhere that she was. We merely know her name was Mary, ( every commom name) Magdalene shows where she was from, not a last name

2006-09-22 15:34:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Though there is no connection made in the New Testament, nor is the woman in the house of the Pharisee given a name, the idea that Mary was "the woman who was a sinner", or that she was unchaste, was developed by the Patristic writers of the 3rd and 4th centuries. This idea is rejected by most Protestants. Catholics, on the other hand, consider this one person to be, not only the sinner of Luke 7:36-50 but also Mary of Bethany, the sister of Martha and the resurrected Lazarus (Luke 10:38-42 and John 1:10); although the Roman Catholic Church withdrew from this linkage at the Second Vatican Council (1969) it survives strongly in folk Catholicism.

For some Christians, the idea developed by Church fathers, that Mary is also the woman that Jesus had rescued from being stoned to death (as recounted in the Pericope Adulterae) still holds true. However those critical scholars who are drawing conclusions from the canonic texts alone believe that the woman Jesus rescued and Mary were two separate persons. Conservative early-19th century theological traditions, vividly realized in the Mel Gibson movie The Passion of the Christ, portray the prostitute and Mary as the same person, and Martin Scorsese's earlier film adaptation of Nikos Kazantzakis's novel The Last Temptation of Christ followed a similar tradition.

2006-09-22 21:01:58 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Some try to identify the sinful woman who washed Jesus' feet in Luke 7:36-50 with Mary Magdalene, but there is no scriptural proof of this. Whether this anonymous woman was a prostitute may be inferred but it's certainly not dispositive. 'The Pharisee said to himself, "If this man were a prophet He would know who and what sort of person this woman is who is touching Him, that she is a sinner" ' (verse 39).

2006-09-22 21:08:38 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No. In one religion she was labeled a prostitute, however, that religion (I'd rather not name it) finally put that to rest back in the 60's.
Mary Magdalene was a Jewish woman who was possessed by demons. Jesus delivered her from them. She became one of his greatest followers and she was one of the people who was at the cross when he died and was the first person to see him when he arose from the dead.
If you go to the library and talk to the reference librarian, they may be able to refer you to some books about her.
She was NOT AN ADULTRESS EITHER.

2006-09-22 21:05:08 · answer #4 · answered by Juanitamarie 3 · 0 0

She wasn't a prostitute, she had just been married 4 times and was shacking up with guy #5. Like half the women in America nowadays - she'd probably fit right in with the rest of us.

2006-09-22 21:01:16 · answer #5 · answered by farmgirl 3 · 0 1

She was called a prostitute to deglorify the sacred feminine, the culmination of goddess warship that was incredibly prominent before the founding of Christianity.

2006-09-22 22:21:16 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is commonly assumed that she was a prostitute but I can not give you a scripture reference for that I believe it is just an assumption I do know that she was exorcised of 7 demons though...

2006-09-22 21:04:51 · answer #7 · answered by 57chevy 3 · 0 0

No she was not a prostitute.She simply commited adultery. Notice, however, the scribes and pharisees did not bring forth the man whom she was caught with. As was tradition they were both to be stoned to death.

2006-09-22 21:04:40 · answer #8 · answered by mortgagegirl101 6 · 0 0

No. But the church defamed her back in the day to make sure they have control over women.

2006-09-22 21:07:08 · answer #9 · answered by chicachicabobbob 4 · 1 0

Does it really make a difference? It is not like she whas married to Jesus Christ or anything like that.

2006-09-22 21:16:23 · answer #10 · answered by Southern Apostolic 6 · 1 0

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