2006-09-21 12:33:37 · 20 answers · asked by TONY 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Buy-Bull says a woman is unclean during that time and should live away from everyone, like a shed out back.
2006-09-21 12:36:47 · answer #1 · answered by iknowtruthismine 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
From Leviticus... but that law is not in effect any more.
Ephesians 2:15 Through his body on the cross, Christ put an end to the law with all its commands and rules. He wanted to create one new group of people out of the two. He wanted to make peace between them.
Colossians 2:14 He wiped out the written Law with its rules. The Law was against us. It opposed us. He took it away and nailed it to the cross.
Galatians 2:16 ...No one can be made right with God by obeying the law.
Galatians 2:21 ...What if a person could become right with God by obeying the law? Then Christ died for nothing!
Galatians 5:4 Some of you are trying to be made right with God by obeying the law. You have been separated from Christ. You have fallen away from God’s grace... The ONLY verse that talks about falling from grace, and they did it by trying to follow the law!
Jesus said he didn’t come to destroy the law, but to fulfill it. (Matt 5:17) The effect was the same. Once fulfilled it was no longer in effect. The very next verse, Matthew 5:18, looks forward to the time when the law would be set aside. "...Not even the smallest stroke of a pen will disappear from the Law UNTIL EVERYTHING IS COMPLETED."
On the cross, Jesus' last recorded saying, "It is finished," is an important milestone. Because of Jesus life, Satan had been defeated. The law was finished and would no longer stand between God and mankind.
The 10 commandments along with the rest of the law ("commands and rules" from Ephesians 2:15) were "set aside" when they were fulfilled or completed at Jesus' resurrection. We are no longer bound by that law.
2006-09-21 12:44:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yep, it's in there all right. There's a good reason for it though, in those times there wasn't much in the hygene department, and blood brings all kinds of bacteria, which causes disease. And they woman didn't have to leave the house, she just couldn't sleep with her husband during that time. The two-week time table someone else mentioned was about touching dead bodies, which also carried some pretty heavy duty bacteria, which was the reason for yet another law about burying the dead quickly.
2006-09-21 12:43:58 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, not only did God advise this in this day because of health reasons... They did not have the Dr.s and technology or medicines that would be needed to fight the infections that can so easily be transmitted at this time, but the law went further than this.
Think about it. If a man and woman abstain for a certain time then this would mean that they were in a sense "fasting" for a time from physical pleasure and this would be a time of prayer as they perhaps fought the urge to have sex anyway.
This time of prayerful abstainence would make sex less hum-drum and more exciting the times they could have it and well... as they wrestled with their desires during this time it would serve as a reminder to them that we battle our fleshly desires day in and day out against the will of God for us.
As we try to put our desires in the back seat and serve the Lord instead of ourselves, we realize more and more that we need the Lord in order to do this.
It is all about being humbled. :) and knowing that God is God and we are not. :)
Just remember that Jesus came not to abolish the law, but to fulfill the law and in Jesus' death and resurrection the law was indeed fulfilled.
We do not HAVE to abstain from sex during this time anymore in order to be saved, and praise God for medicine and Dr.s and better hygiene habits learned through the ages.
However, if a husband and wife would like to practice the habit of abstinence during this time in a woman's cycle, they certainly can reap the spiritual benefits of this time of fasting and praying in their marriage. Amen!
2006-09-21 12:41:01 · answer #4 · answered by NONAME 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is part of the Law of Moses. Some of the other prophets mention it in passing also. Also, Moses would not allow a menstruating woman to enter the temple, either, because she was considered to be 'unclean' until her period was over.
Since the New Testament teaches that we no longer have to worry about keeping kosher, then the issue of a woman being "unclean" during the time of her 'issue of blood" is no longer an issue.
2006-09-21 12:40:23 · answer #5 · answered by Randy G 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes. read Leviticus 12 it tells about the whole thing. Blood is the life line, and should not be messed with.
2006-09-21 12:38:15 · answer #6 · answered by salvation 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There may be in the Old Testament there are alot of laws in Dueteronomy. As a Catholic I never was taught about that that I remember.
2006-09-21 12:37:23 · answer #7 · answered by Cathy R 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes in the old test. Nothing is mentioned in the New Test.
2006-09-21 12:37:53 · answer #8 · answered by iwant_u2_wantme2000 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. in the OT. One of 613 laws of moses.
2006-09-21 12:37:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, however Queen's explanation is not accurate unless the man is on his period too.
2006-09-21 12:36:36 · answer #10 · answered by Kathryn™ 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋