I breed my female Shih tzu with a male Shih tzu that belongs to a friend. This breeding was done to make a bit of extra cash on my part. I did not take my female to be X-rayed to find out how many puppies were on the way, because I was not worried about her delivering her puppies. On September 16th after 6 hours of labor my female delivered only one pup in the litter. The owners of the male allowed us to use their male with only one condition that they receive a puppy in return, which was fine with us. We never discussed what would happen if she were to only have one puppy. Keeping both parties in mind what do you think would be the right thing to do. (Please keep in mind that the puppy cannot be sold/removed from the mother until it is 8 weeks old and has been weaned off of the mother's milk to puppy food.) So , who gets the puppy......????
2006-09-21 07:36:26 · 21 answers · asked by arianaciara 2 in Pets ➔ Dogs
In such a case it is common practice to sell the one pup and split the cash, or for the breeder (you) to pay the owner of the male 1/2 of the price of a pup, according to what same pups are going for in the nearest large city newspaper, or your home town paper if it is big enough to have the same pups.
As it is likely the Male's fault (low fertility) that the littler was only one..Unless your female is under 2 years old, in which case it could be either of them..Don't use him again...The owner of the male should put in 1/2of the expense for shots, worming, vet check, and advertisement..
If you have any problems convincing the friend that this is the way to do it, just email me and I can back it up with log of legal decisions..In fact, in court, you would get 1/2 recompense for the expenses you have put into the puppy and its mom before it is weaned..
I study dog law extensively..and in any breeding, all contract obligation to owner of male is nell, unless live pup is produced.. In this case, you have only one, so there is none for you..so Live pup is not produced..Verbal or written, the same is implied when making the original agreement..Confused?..email me if you have questions.
2006-09-21 07:44:06 · answer #1 · answered by Chetco 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It sounds fair that they get the puppy - after all, the owner of the female usually pays a stud fee but you didn't in this case. So your end of the agreement is to give them a puppy.
In the future you should keep in mind that breeding puppies is not a very profitable business and for you to treat it as a way to make extra cash is just wrong. These are living creatures you are bringing into the world, and I'm sure you realize there are thousands of homeless puppies that need to be adopted. Next time you need some extra cash, have a garage sale!!
2006-09-21 08:23:02 · answer #2 · answered by ontario ashley 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The only thing to do is talk to the owner of the male. By way of verbal contract the puppy belongs to them, it is not their concern that she only had one. They may be willing to sell the puppy to you if you would like to keep it or charge you for the stud fee. Contractually they own this puppy and when the puppy is old enough, you are obligated to deliver. I am sure you dont want to hear it but puppies should not be brought into the world just to make money. Were both parents OFA Certified? Were they tested for the applicable health concerns in ShitTzus? Do both parents meet breed standard (not just purebred)? Do you know the history of both of these dogs parents, grandparents ect? Is there any history of health defects 6 generations back? These are just a few of the things that go into responsible and ethical breeding practices. Did you know that as of today there are 963 ShitTzus in the shelter systems across the country. Look it up www.petfinder.com.
http://www.shihtzu.org/
If you love this breed and would like to continue breeding them, it should be done the right way.
BE PART OF THE SOLUTION NOT THE PROBLEM!
2006-09-21 07:54:14 · answer #3 · answered by madfly80 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Legally it is said that the owner of the male gets the pick of the litter, and the owner of the female gets the rest. In my opinion the puppy would go to the owner of the male. But if you want the best advice, call up your vet. The puppy does need to stay with you until 8 weeks, no doubt about it, but like i sadi, I have a feeling that the owner of the male will get the puppy
2006-09-21 07:41:49 · answer #4 · answered by Morgan C 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually there is a contract associated between breeders, who are breeding thier dogs that would give you a clear answer. It sounds like you had a verbal agreement only.
Based on what you're saying, sounds like the stud family gets the puppy as per your agreement.
You might consider a compromise: Suggest selling the puppy and splitting the payment. That's the only way both parties will be compensated.
Sorry about the dilemma; good luck!
2006-09-21 07:41:51 · answer #5 · answered by ? 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think you have to honor your verbal contract with the stud dogs owners, maybe you can discuss another breeding because he only gave you one pup with out those terms again.
Make sure Momma dog is checked out as healthy before you breed, or just to make sure she doesn't have any dead puppies inside. This is common is small breed dogs, they birth a puppy or a few, and don't birth the rest and that could lead to more problems. The vet will do a simple exam to palpate for any puppies inside and he can also check out the new pup to make sure the pup is healthy.
Good luck
2006-09-21 08:02:28 · answer #6 · answered by Krazee about my pets! 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
your friend should get the puppy because that was your agreement.
You can however, ask you friend if you can pay a stud fee since there was only one puppy or maybe you can ask to breed again and then stipulate what would happen in the chance of only 1 puppy.
So far you are not out any money so if it were me I would give the puppy to your friend and be done with it.
2006-09-21 08:10:40 · answer #7 · answered by bootsjeansnpearls 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The owner of the dog/male gets the puppy.
It is still your responsibility to raise this puppy to good health. These things happen sometimes. It's always better to just pay the stud fee up front.
2006-09-21 07:44:30 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did you talk to the stud owner yet?how does he feel abou the situation?You shouldn't breed for the money in the first place!If you breed your dog it shoul be for the love of the breed,to make someone else happy,and you should have a vet check the dog before and during the pregnacy!
2006-09-22 02:43:15 · answer #9 · answered by rainbow14_us 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would discuss this openly with your friend. If this person is your friend then maybe you will be able to work something out. With this being her first pregancy, it may be normal to have only had one pup. Either way you need to have her seen by the vet and make sure she is okay, and make sure the pup is okay. I hope you can work this out with your friend, because it could possibly be a great business for the two of you.
2006-09-21 07:43:37 · answer #10 · answered by thedothanbelle 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋