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Please cite. Trying to see which one is a bigger evil: gays or lobsters.

2006-09-20 09:27:11 · 11 answers · asked by James P 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

Oh no...someone sell my Red Lobster stock quick.

2006-09-20 09:29:13 · answer #1 · answered by rab2344 4 · 1 1

The lobster/shellfish abomination was part of the Mosaic law. (Leviticus, intrusives me correctly on the point; because it was 'unclean'.
However, the Mosaic law was done away (Hebrews amongst other texts) when Christ died on the cross. All creatures were called clean by God Acts 10:11-15 (KJV). So even shellfish/lobsters were authorized by God then.

2006-09-21 21:51:28 · answer #2 · answered by jefferyspringer57@sbcglobal.net 7 · 0 0

I was unaware of this abomination. I suppose that would have to be from the Old Testament, when Moses was explaining a whole lot of things to the people that God told him, like when and how it's ok to beat your slave...I don't mean to be hedonistic, I'm just saying...sure would suck to be a gay lobster!

2006-09-20 16:40:06 · answer #3 · answered by josephine 3 · 0 0

How many times do people need to make themselves look like fools by misquoting and misinterpreting the bible? You come off as big as a moron as everyone else who has tried this same argument on here, seriously I think I see this question being asked at least once or twice a week on here as if the person asking as discovered this great piece of knowledge to try and undermine Christians, when alls you really do is show your lack of knowledge and understanding of the bible. Do you really think you can quote one or two verses without a full understanding of the text and think you are some bible scholar who found the straw that broke the camel's back regarding the ridiculousness of religious belief, especially Christian theology.

Once again for the intellectually inept...the bible does not condemn the eating of "shellfish" except for God's chosen people the Jews, even then those commandments were abolished by Jesus in the New Testament. God gave his chosen people (jews) many commandments as a way of guidelines in how they live and conduct their life, from the way they dressed, their dietary needs, etc. Among those commandments God gave all of humanity the Civil Law (the 10 Commandments) or moral law if you wish. Except for the 10 commandments the gentiles (non jews) were not held to follow the other commandments because these were set aside for His chosen people. Why are they His chosen people? Because God set them aside the messengers to the world of His existence, preists to the world.

How does homosexuality break teh laws of the 10 Commandments? God gives 4 definitions to the term adultry. There is the general definition as given in the 10 Commandments, Thou shalt not commit adultry. Specifically the bible fruther defines adultry in 3 categories: Pre-marriage; During Marriage; and Intentions. He defines pre-marriage adultry as fornication, having sex outside the boundries of marriage. During marriage it is defined specifically as adultry when one or both spouses has sex again outside of the boundries of that marriage. In the New Testament He defines it as intentions. Jesus says, "you have heard it said before 'Thou shalt not commit adultry', but I say to you that anyone who looks at another person has already committed adultry with them in their hearts. As you can see God not only looks at our physical actions as well as our internal intentions. To fully understand this we must now look at the definition of marriage. The bible defines marriage as being a union or binding contract between a man and a woman. You now have a couple problems here. For one, when two people, wether heterosexual or homosexual engage in sex outside the bonds of marriage they are fornicating and thereby breaking God's Law of not commiting adultry the same goes if they even look at someone and have lustful thoughts of that person(s). Since marriage is defined as a union between man and woman, one of the reasons being procreation, and since neither two men nor two women can procreate they cannot get married. To allow it would be going against the bible's definition of marriage. These people would still be committing what is considered fornicating and thereby still breaking the commandment of 'Thou shalt not commit adultry'.

So to answer your question from a Christian standpoint, eating shellfish (lobsters) is not a sin or abomination, but homosexuality is making it the clear winner as being the bigger abomination.

For future reference I would instead of just reading the bible thinking you can pull out verses here and there without understanding the context to which the verse was written, actually study it and read it for understanding.

2006-09-20 16:58:02 · answer #4 · answered by Bruce Leroy - The Last Dragon 3 · 0 0

Deuteronomy 14:10 And whatsoever hath not fins and scales ye may not eat; it is unclean unto you.

IF your not going to take this serious why bother asking a question? Your just wasting time.

2006-09-20 16:38:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Since I am not Jewish and don't keep kosher (Jewish food laws are limited in their applicability to Jews alone), I haven't spent a lot of time on this. But I know that it comes at least twice - once in Deuteronomy, and also in Leviticus.

2006-09-20 16:34:25 · answer #6 · answered by evolver 6 · 1 0

why what did lobsters and shellfish do wrong lol

2006-09-20 16:32:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I wish I had a dollar for every stupid shellfish question I've seen on here. Please find something doctrinally relevant to speak of.

2006-09-20 16:30:17 · answer #8 · answered by firebyknight 4 · 0 2

It was pertaining to the cleanliness and the health aspect.........I'm still laughing here, you guys!

2006-09-20 16:37:38 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

seven

2006-09-20 16:30:25 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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