Wrong on the Hebrew. The term is "Anashim", which means men. In this case it referred to the messengers (angels, as you call them).
2006-09-20 09:18:04
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answer #1
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answered by jb48237 1
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The actual reason that Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed is that they willfully and knowingly disobeyed and rejected God.
Now, as to the things that they were doing because of their rejection, there were many acts, homosexuality, orgies, corruptions, basically you name it, it was being done in the open and against the will of the one it was being done to as well as with consent.
By the time, the angels went to the city to warn Lot of the impending destruction, it was already to late, the angels were there for one reason and that was to remove Lot and his family.
But, do not forget that homesexuality was among the acts of disobedience that was being committed in these two cities, among many other things. It seems that you have looked up original words and meanings, so you would be aware the the word "know" as used in this passage and others is a sexual referrence meaning to have sex with.
The angels were here and appeared to look like men because if you read the story before the destruction where the angels had dinner with Abraham and it was culturally wrong for women to have dinner with men that they were not married to, as you can see by the fact that while they ate, Sara stayed inside the tent and did not eat with them. This would show that the angels took human form of the male gender.
2006-09-20 16:21:09
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answer #2
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answered by cindy 6
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That is not entirely correct. The Hebrew word translated "men" is "enowsh" which accroding to Strong's lexicon means "man, mortal man, person, mankind a)of an individual, b) men (collective), c) man, mankind" It is also a masculine word form. Other places in the Bible have following contexts:
man 520
certain 10
husbands 3
some 3
merchantmen 2
persons 2
miscellaneous 24
From this, I think it is safe to say that they did know these were men (at least in form) and their intent was to rape them. I would also note that it is not homosexuality per se, but the homosexual act that was considered an obomination to God. The person is still beloved of God, just a sinner like the rest of humanity.
2006-09-20 16:21:23
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answer #3
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answered by Tim 6
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The word "homosexual" didn't even exist until the 19th Century. Some have attributed it to Oscar Wilde, who was Gay.
Many of today's Bible-thumpers don't even know the history of the books, and all that has been added and deleted over the years. Much of Christ's Sermon on The Mount was heavily censored at the Council of Nicea, for example. It has been reported that during that sermon, Christ spoke of reincarnation, karmic law, free will and self-determination.
So, The Bible as it exists today is only a shadow, a parody of what was probably really taught by Christ or by God.
2006-09-20 16:19:15
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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And I guess the verse in Jude doesn't mean what it says, either.
"Likewise, Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities near them, which like them committed sexual sins and engaged in homosexual activities, serve as an example of the punishment of eternal fire." (Jude 1:7)
The words from the Greek, translated "homosexual activities," is a combination of "ekporneu" where we get pornography from, "aperchomai," to chase after, and "heteros," meaning different or strange. The resultant meaning is to "sexually sin by going after strange flesh." Now, some may say that because hetero is there, it could mean "other flesh" which would mean that it wasn't homosexuality, but heterosexuality. However the Greek doesn't permit that rendition, since "normal" sexual relations had a separate word, "sunerchomai," which means to come together conjugally.
Okay, Greek lesson is over.
2006-09-20 16:32:42
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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You need to read your bible more closely, if you want the real translation, use the Aramic bible, These 2 angels that came to Lot's house, whose homosexuals saw them as men & not angels, These sodomites came to lot's house for these 2 angels, To have relationships with them because in the men yes they looked like man, & these 2 angels pulled Lot back into his house before they could grab him. Then these 2 angels smote those sodomites with blindnes. let's not twist the scriptures around, it is true not everyone in Sodom wa homosexuals, but because the people agreed & went alone with such actions, God destroyed them all except for lot's family.
2006-09-20 16:40:02
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answer #6
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answered by birdsflies 7
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It was inhospitality which destroyed the 2 cities, according to the Bible. Like you said, it had more to do with Rape, than just a sexual act. Of course, people will use whatever they can to justify their hate. And what better way to do it than to say God hates, so therefore I can too.
2006-09-20 16:34:23
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answer #7
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answered by NightShade 2
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The men of Sodom even wanted to have sex with the angels. It was for homosexuality and all sexual perversion ,that Sodom and Gomorrah was destroyed.
2006-09-20 16:15:26
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answer #8
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answered by ? 7
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the word translated as 'know' means to have sex. If the men of Sodom wanted to have sex with the men that were in Lots house that night, then it was as homosexual act. Study some more.
2006-09-20 16:14:28
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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the problem was more that they wanted to rape the messengers of God, be it Homosexual, it was aginst Gods word at the time, or straight, and if it were straight, the book of Enoch and clues in Genesis will tell you why thats a bad idea.
2006-09-20 16:21:36
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answer #10
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answered by sathor 2
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