Does this scripture mean that women shouldn't preach or can only teach to women? Serious answers please!?

Question

1 Timothy 2:11-13
A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent. For Adam was formed first, then Eve.

Answer 1

Yes. That's what it means.

Answer 2

With regards to the preaching of the gospel that leads to salvation, I think anyone can give this message regardless of gender...

1 Timothy 2: 11-13 doesn't equal to "women have no ministry," for there are many examples of women in the Bible who have taken part in it. The best example would be the couple of Aquila and Priscilla (Acts 18: 2), who both taught Apollos (Acts 18: 26).

What it does mean is that those who do not know much about the Scriptures must not raise questions or ask so much that it disrupts a meeting (verse 11; this was especially true during the time of Acts, where only the boys received most of the religious education while girls got the basic few do's and don'ts) When you ask, ask quietly, preferrably after the meeting. (Will this also apply true to men? I suppose so...)

As far as a woman having authority over a man, this would be a matter of propriety (especially at that time where women did receive less religious teaching). A woman can teach in unison with a man (just as Priscilla taught with Aquila), but the more senior one would have to be the man, as he can exert more authority than a woman (some exceptions do occur, but even then the woman must still respect the man).

Answer 3

Yes it does. Many things in the NT are cultural, however Paul said that the reason he didn't allow a woman to teach or have authority over men is the fact that Adam was born first and because Eve was the one deceived. That means that regardless of what was going on at that time it is irrelevant. He made that judgement based on Adam and Eve and not on the culture of the day.

Answer 4

I presume you are quoting from the Christian Bible - This is a more complicated question than I have time or space for, however, I will answer you.
The biblical references to women to be quiet is from a time when women were still not allowed to be fully present in the church. They were placed behind a kind of wall, or screen, which enabled them to view only, not participate fully. Some had questions, so they spoke amongst themselves, and were considered to be non-compliant to the 'silence' code which was put upon them. Thus, the references to the 'head of household', and so on.
I accept the passages where it describes how God created 'them' ... God created them, the human, as male and female. A theologian I know, describes this as the division of the human into male and female. Simplistic answer, but, more solid than any other I have read or studied. Also, the Hebrew word for human has no vowels, but in english we would view the word something like: h' d'm - later referred to as adam. (another misnomber, which has been accepted (by men) as a means of placing the male above the female.

Answer 5

No it does not!

Psalm 68:11 in the Amplified Bible says, "The Lord gives the word [of power]; the women who bear and publish [the news] are a great host."

I don't know about all the other translations, but the Amplified Bible makes it very plain.

The KJV is different, so you may want to study the concordance on this subject. You can start with this scripture. It has really helped me.

There were many women preachers in the Bible.

I hope this helps.

Answer 6

Yes. It does. You should either accept it as innerrant, or you should dispose of the whole book it's in because you are denying the innerancy of the book.

This is the problem with picking and choosing what of the Bible you wish to accept or not accept. Either St. Paul is right, and women must be silent in church, and not to teach or have authority over men, OR, the Bible contains an error or a detail that does not apply eternally. If the Bible contains an error or a variant ethical rule, then how can you accept the innerancy of the rest of it?

Answer 7

Women Shouldn T Preach

Answer 8

It means a womans place in the Church is in silence.

In the Bible days, thats how it was. A woman, did nothing.

Today though, a woman is permitted to teach in sunday school, and Bible classes. Some religions go so far as to have women preachers, I think this goes against the Bible, I don't agree with it at all. As the verse you offered stated.

Answer 9

It means, as in many many other places of the bible including a part of it that says a woman's birth is a "total loss", that a woman is nothing, and the only one allowed to teach her or speak FOR her is her husband. It doesn't say he has to be intelligent. It only says she must follow anything he tells her if she has questions. I'm a muslim woman, and if we have something to say we say it right there in the mosque. It's called learning and debate. If women are right, the Imam says so and that is much of the time. If a woman is wrong, then it will be said. Same goes for the men.

Answer 10

Don't get bogged down in taking scripture out of context. There are some good answers here that address that so I won't repeat the same. Find a translation that is closest to the original, and do not put much stock in a version of the Bible that has been translated and re-translated so many times that the original text is lost. There are many errors in translations in the Bible, and to believe the inaccurate versions as gospel is irresponsible.

Answer 11

This clearly depends on the situation.

Isaiah 3:12 As for my people, its task assigners are dealing severely, and mere women actually rule over it.

This show that when the men who are serving God, are not living up to their responsibilities, and actually deal treacherously with people, God does not accept their worship, and allows faithful women to take the lead.

It really is preferable for men to take the lead, as they were created to do so. However, unfortunately, it is hard to find a Christlike man at times.

Solomon once wrote that he could not find a woman who had spiritual sense.

The Bible says that there is no one who seeks for God. All have become corrupt. The actual circumstances that this applies to is not clear.

Many people today are seeking for God.

Also, Zechariah 5:9 speaks of a prophecy about 2 women whom God directs to raise up the ephah of wickedness for judgment. It is obvious that these are the two anointed ones mentioned in Zech.4:11-14, which corresponds with the 2 prophets of Rev. 11:1-13. WHY does everyone assume the 2 prophets in Revelation are men?

Maybe God is trying to show the value of Christian women, that they are not just...under rated objects...but actually can have the same degree of spirituality as men. It is a test for men, as the Bible says;..in Christ there is neither, slave or freeman, Jew nor Greek, male nor female, but we are all one person in union with Christ Jesus.

As some have already pointed out, the Bible clearly says in Acts 2..that daughters will prophesy..and God's spirit will be on women slaves of God.

So, the question is, when this happens, will the men listen? Or will pride caue them to think like Satan, that we are not one person in Christ Jesus.

Praise Jehovah, the God of the Universe!!

Hail earth's new King Jesus, the King of the Universe!!

Welcome his wife, the Queen of the Heavens!!

Give honor to the heir, Elijah, God's anointed one!! (see my 360 page) Whom Jehovah's Witness Organization rejects..

And by the way, *some* of my anointed views definitely are not in total harmony with the...

Organization of Jehovah's Witnesses,

who refuse to repent over certain false teachings.

I worship Jehovah in spirit and TRUTH, as the Bible says the true worshipers will.